ONE BAPTISM - Ephesians 4:5

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dalconn

Guest
#42
A person can be baptized in water and still be dead in his sins however, when a person gets baptized with,in,and by the Holy Spirit that person is saved to the end of time
 
May 2, 2014
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#44
A person can be baptized in water and still be dead in his sins however, when a person gets baptized with,in,and by the Holy Spirit that person is saved to the end of time
I agree that one can be baptized in water and be dead in sins. I don't think Scripture indicates that one was baptized "by" the Spirit, but rather with the Spirit. However, I'm not sure that receiving the Holy Spirit and being baptized with the Holy Spirit are the same thing. I'm not sure all Christians were baptized with the Holy Spirit.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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#45
if you have a look at the whole book of Ephesians, not just one snippet of one sentence "one baptism" -- you will find Paul throughout the epistle encouraging us to be in Christ, and extolling all the blessing that God has made and given us in Christ, and proclaiming the salvation and redemption and glory we have in Christ.

Christ Jesus is exactly what we must be immersed in!! in Him are all things for us, and all we have for God is in Him. it is the gospel of Christ we received, not the gospel of H[SUB]2[/SUB]O - every virtue of the common ritual receives it's worth only because it points to Christ and reflects the spiritual reality of our own crucifixion and resurrection, which is in Christ. the Holy Spirit is the guarantee of God to us in Christ -- there is only one immersion, and it is to be immersed in Christ!!
 
Sep 6, 2014
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#46
What does Paul mean by "one baptism" or what is Paul's point in saying "one baptism"?

What does "one" mean?

What does "baptism" mean?
Ephesians 4:4
There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; 5One Lord, one faith, one baptism,

Could it be that the meaning of "one baptism" Paul is referring to here is defined properly as the baptism of the Holy Spirit that makes us one with the will of God the Father and Jesus Christ? One body,one Spirit,one hope,one Lord,one faith,one baptism.

John 17:22

And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: 23I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.

Ephesians 1:
13In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise, 14Which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, unto the praise of his glory.

After receiving the promise of the Holy Spirit we share in "one baptism", "one faith" ect,.
I don't see this "one baptism" as meaning from the immersion in water type of baptism as this kind of baptism is not common practice to all believers of Jesus Christ in Christendom.

1Corinthians 1:17

For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

What happens to a believer of Jesus Christ who has not been immersed in water (one form of baptism) but who calls on the name of the LORD? Does your logic say they will go to hell because they were not baptized with water? If so do you not make void these words? "For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved."

Ephesians 2:8
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: 9Not of works, lest any man should boast.
 
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Markum1972

Senior Member
Mar 25, 2013
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#47
I'm aware of how the Jews counted days, however, John 832 has already laid out the argument, the verse about the thief is punctuated incorrectly. There was no punctuation in the original texts, it's added by the translators and they put it in the wrong place. The word translated Paradise means a garden, it's used in the Greek Old Testament of the Garden of Eden. The thief asked Jesus to remember him when He came into His kingdom, he wasn't concerned with his location later that day. Jesus didn't enter His kingdom that day, He was in the tomb for three days. Paradise on the other hand is in the kingdom.

7 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God. (Rev 2:7 KJV)
Matthew 12:40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

Where was Jesus those three days and nights?
 
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dalconn

Guest
#48
I agree that one can be baptized in water and be dead in sins. I don't think Scripture indicates that one was baptized "by" the Spirit, but rather with the Spirit. However, I'm not sure that receiving the Holy Spirit and being baptized with the Holy Spirit are the same thing. I'm not sure all Christians were baptized with the Holy Spirit.

1 Corinthians 12:13
For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body—whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free—and have all been made to drink into one Spirit
 
May 2, 2014
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#49
Matthew 12:40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

Where was Jesus those three days and nights?
The tomb.


Ten characters
 
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dalconn

Guest
#50
Matthew 12:40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

Where was Jesus those three days and nights?

1 Peter 3:19

by whom also He went and preached to the spirits in prison,

(I would say sheol or hades)
 
May 2, 2014
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#51
1 Corinthians 12:13
For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body—whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free—and have all been made to drink into one Spirit
Yes, but when Paul wrote "we were all" he was writing to the Corinthians, not all Christians of all time. The Bible is God's word but it is also real history. If we're going to understand it correctly we need to keep it in context.
 
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dalconn

Guest
#52
Yes, but when Paul wrote "we were all" he was writing to the Corinthians, not all Christians of all time. The Bible is God's word but it is also real history. If we're going to understand it correctly we need to keep it in context.

Hebrews 13:8
Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today, and forever.

Gods word is more than history...it's our future!
 
Mar 12, 2014
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#54
Ephesians 4:4
There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; 5One Lord, one faith, one baptism,

Could it be that the meaning of "one baptism" Paul is referring to here is defined properly as the baptism of the Holy Spirit that makes us one with the will of God the Father and Jesus Christ? One body,one Spirit,one hope,one Lord,one faith,one baptism.

John 17:22

And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: 23I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.

Ephesians 1:
13In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise, 14Which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, unto the praise of his glory.

After receiving the promise of the Holy Spirit we share in "one baptism", "one faith" ect,.
I don't see this "one baptism" as meaning from the immersion in water type of baptism as this kind of baptism is not common practice to all believers of Jesus Christ in Christendom.

1Corinthians 1:17

For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

What happens to a believer of Jesus Christ who has not been immersed in water (one form of baptism) but who calls on the name of the LORD? Does your logic say they will go to hell because they were not baptized with water? If so do you not make void these words? "For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved."

Ephesians 2:8
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: 9Not of works, lest any man should boast.
Proper interpretation/exegesis is words are to be taken literally unless something in the context shows otherwise.

"ONE" is literally one

"BAPTISM" would be a literal immersion.

Nothing in the context show either "one" or "baptism" is used in a figurative way, so why would baptism here be anything other than a literal immersion in water, as with the eunuch in Acts 8?

Since there is literally "ONE" baptism in effect then the baptism of 1 Cor 1:14,16 would be the same baptism of 1 Cor 12:13.
In 1 Cor 1:14,16 Paul baptized some of the Corinthians himself and Paul being a human could only administer water baptism, as Christ commissioned disciples (humans) in the great commission to go, teach and baptize, Mt 28:19,20. Phillip the disciple water baptized the eunuch. To get around the necessity of water baptism, some create a second, spirit baptism and violate EPh 4:5 that says there is ONE baptism. This point gets overlooked, dismissed over and over by the anti-water baptism crown so I started this thread to make the error of creating two baptisms stand out.

I have looked through this thread this morning and unless I missed it no one has yet to address 1 Cor 1:14,16 and 1 Cor 12:13 being ONE baptism and not two different baptisms.


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The "not of works" in Eph 2:9 refers to works of merit and not obedience to God. In Acts 10:47,48 God commanded water baptism to the Gentiles and the Gentiles must obey that command to be saved. No obedient works in submitting to God's commands = doing unrighteousness/lost.
 
Mar 12, 2014
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#55
The command to be baptized is Holy Spirit not water. This is the lynch pin of your error.

Salvation is a heart matter. Holy Spirit baptism is a heart matter. Water baptism is a Jewish tradition.

Even today when a Jewish person claims to be saved by grace through faith in Christ the Messiah his friends and family will endeavor to persuade him or her to recant right up and until he or she receives water baptism. After water baptism they are considered dead and separated from the Jewish religion.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
No one was ever commanded to be baptized with the Holy Spirit, but man has been commanded to be water baptized as in Acts 10:47,48.
 
Mar 12, 2014
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#56

is it H[SUB]2[/SUB]O we ought to walk in and remain in, or Christ?

should we encourage each other not to leave our bathtubs, or not to let our feet stray from the Way?

H[SUB]2[/SUB]O didn't wash away my sin. the blood of Jesus Christ did. it is in Him we ought to be immersed, and in Him we ought to dwell, and in Him we receive redemption, sanctification, justification, and the eternal promise and hope which IS Him.

here is where my soul was redeemed:
View attachment 90591

not here:
View attachment 90592
Men are to do what Christ says (MK 16:16) or else man cannot call Him their Lord, Lk 6:46.
 
May 15, 2013
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#57
What does Paul mean by "one baptism" or what is Paul's point in saying "one baptism"?

What does "one" mean?

What does "baptism" mean?
To me it sound as if he is letting the readers to know that there is one Baptism, but which one is he is referring to? I doesn't know, but God knows. But only thing that I does know is that if we perceive thing in the natural, we will be judge in that same manner that we has chosen to see it. But I want God to look at my heart, not literally by opening my chest up and seeing it pump, but look at by the spiritual nature.

2 Corinthians 3:6 He has made us competent as ministers of a new covenant—not of the letter but of the Spirit; for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life. (this is how they explained in those days, not to take thing literally, but now we has a word for it, and which it is called, "Literally".)
 
Mar 12, 2014
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#58
He never said "figurative" baptism. The baptism of the Holy Spirit is not "figurative".

According to your logic, you cannot claim it to be "water" baptism either then because it does not reference it.

However... Ephesians does mention the Holy Spirit MANY times despite your claim.

Ephesians 4:6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all (one Lord), and in you all (one faith).7 But unto every one of us is given grace according to the measure of the gift of Christ (one baptism).

Again...
Ephesians 4:
8 Wherefore he saith, When he (one Lord) ascended up on high, he led captivity captive (one faith), and gave gifts (one baptism) unto men.

What was the gift that God gave to men through Jesus? The gift of the Holy Spirit.

John 14:
26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.

John the baptist understood this when saying...
Matthew 3:
11 I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance. but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:

2 Timothy 3:5 Having a form of godliness, but denying the power thereof: from such turn away.



Proper exegesis is words to be taken literally unless context shows otherwise. Nothing in the context of Eph 4:5 shows that baptize is anything other than a literal immersion, as the eunuch was literally immersed in water, Acts 8.

Since there is ONE baptism then the baptism in 1 Cor 1:14,16 is the same ONE baptism as the one in 1 Cor 12:13, correct?
 
Mar 12, 2014
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#59
There is no Scriptural proof against it. It's logical fallacies that used to argue against it. The first covenant didn't have baptism as a requirement. Using the line of reasoning you're using you would have to deny circumcision as necessary for the covenant yet we see Scripture that states otherwise.

11 And ye shall circumcise the flesh of your foreskin; and it shall be a token of the covenant betwixt me and you.
12 And he that is eight days old shall be circumcised among you, every man child in your generations, he that is born in the house, or bought with money of any stranger, which is not of thy seed. {he that is eight...: Heb. a son of eight days}
13 He that is born in thy house, and he that is bought with thy money, must needs be circumcised: and my covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant.
14 And the uncircumcised man child whose flesh of his foreskin is not circumcised, that soul shall be cut off from his people; he hath broken my covenant. (Gen 17:11-14 KJV)

An uncircumcised person was cut off from the covenant.

In the passage you quoted it didn't say anything about circumcision.
Acts 8:38 must be unscriptural according to some.
 
Mar 12, 2014
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#60
It is plain to see.

John the baptist said it himself.

Matthew 3:11 I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance. but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:

Why was John doing this? Again, it is answered...

Matthew 3:
2 And saying, Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.
3 For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight.

There was no way to the Father (in Heaven) until Jesus made the way. John was preparing people for his coming. He did so by baptizing them into repentance in preparation for Jesus' coming.

Afterwhich, the same was performed (as shown in Acts) for the repentance of sins. However, the repentance of sins cannot save you.

Are there cases in which people repented without being baptized in water? Sure... there are many of them. The thief on the cross is the most commonly known case.

If baptism in water was a requirement for salvation, then Jesus was a liar when he told the thief that he would see him in paradise that same day. Any doctrine that makes Jesus out to be a liar must be a fallacy.




Why then was the eunuch water baptized and not baptized with the Holy Spirit if the one baptism of Eph 4:5 is some kind of spirit baptism?

The thief is not an example of NT salvation but was promised paradise while living under the OT law before Christ's NT law came into effect, Heb 9:16,17.