The word rapture is not in the Bible, so I'm just wondering who you are quoting.
(This is not a challenge to debate. Just wondering)
I was not actually quoting someone else. If I do quote someone else, I usually give attribution at the end of the quote - in the form of a hyphen followed by the name of the person / entity it came from ( with the possible exception of [ something like ] a well-known saying that most people would recognize - where, leaving it unattributed is for the purpose of 'effect' - i.e., people must "get it" for the sake of 'effect' (
Very rarely do I do something like this. ) ).
There are two ways that I generally indicate that I have purposely written something that is a departure from [ normal / common ]
proper English ( as it is supposed to be written ). The italicized sentence in parentheses above is an example of one of them. The other is set-apart, in italics, and quoted - like in post #825.
Both of these two ways are intended to indicate that what I have written should be read as though I had said it verbally -- essentially, a 'verbal' statement inserted into a 'written' communication.
Does this make sense?
If not...
Please try to understand that -- where - and when - I come from -- the English language was taught in such a way as to differentiate the "proper English" way of writing it from the "slang English" way of speaking it. It was taught that "strict adherence to the rules of grammar are necessary to writing proper English"; departing from it was not allowed in "proper English" writing.
I am not perfect, and my "southern roots" ( and other things? ) have obviously affected my writing over the years; however, the "proper English" teaching was ingrained into me very well - and, I always try to write "proper English" as best as I can.
For the purpose of trying to help others understand more clearly [ some of ] the 'nuances' ... I sometimes use a lot of quote marks, brackets, etc. to accentuate my writing.
I would say more; however, I must go now...