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You can't back-edit on this site, so the following could not be back-edited.
It has been, many times, in the following explanation, which you have failed to deal with and to show otherwise, in not presenting one verse where kurios is translated "god" or one verse where theos is translated "lord."
Once again, when kurios is used hundreds of times to mean the Lord Jesus Christ,
and never used to mean God the Father,
the "implication" of the word kurios is certain.
You have not shown that the kurios of 2Co 3:17, 18 means "God" the Father, rather than the "Lord" Jesus Christ.
The lexicons do not state "you can freely interchange 'God' in any verse with 'Lord'."
God the Father did not die on the cross, the Lord Jesus Christ died on the cross.
I'm thinking I'm not the one who looks more obtuse each time they repeat
"you can freely interchange 'God' in any verse with 'Lord'."
You have not shown that the kurios of 2Co 3:17, 18 means "God" the Father, rather than the "Lord" Jesus Christ.
And I'm still waiting for you to explain the OT counterpart of 2Co 3:17, 18 "involving Yahweh."
It has been, many times, in the following explanation, which you have failed to deal with and to show otherwise, in not presenting one verse where kurios is translated "god" or one verse where theos is translated "lord."
Once again, when kurios is used hundreds of times to mean the Lord Jesus Christ,
and never used to mean God the Father,
the "implication" of the word kurios is certain.
You have not shown that the kurios of 2Co 3:17, 18 means "God" the Father, rather than the "Lord" Jesus Christ.
The lexicons do not state "you can freely interchange 'God' in any verse with 'Lord'."
God the Father did not die on the cross, the Lord Jesus Christ died on the cross.
I'm thinking I'm not the one who looks more obtuse each time they repeat
"you can freely interchange 'God' in any verse with 'Lord'."
You have not shown that the kurios of 2Co 3:17, 18 means "God" the Father, rather than the "Lord" Jesus Christ.
And I'm still waiting for you to explain the OT counterpart of 2Co 3:17, 18 "involving Yahweh."
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I'm thinkin' you're trippin' over your Greek into Biblical error and missing
the plain contextual meaning of the text.
Yes and no.
The first one is not, the second one is. . .proves nothing.
You have not shown that the kurios of 2Co 3:17, 18 means "God" the Father, rather than the "Lord" Jesus Christ.
2Co 3:17, 18 - "Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.
And we, who with unveiled faces all reflect the Lord's glory, are being transformed into his likeness, with ever increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit."
In the NT, freedom is in the Lord Jesus Christ (Gal 2:4, 5:1).
And the image of the Lord into which we are being transformed is Christ (Ro 8:29; Gal 4:19; 1Co 5:49).
Likewise, the Lord Jesus Christ and the Spirit are one, co-equal,
as shown in Ac 16:7; Ro 8:9; Gal 4:6 Php 1:19; 1Pe 1:11.
The context is clear.
The "Lord" of 2Co 3:17, 18 is the Lord Jesus Christ.
Are you finally going to present some NT verses where "Lord" specifically means God the Father?
I'll leave that to you in supplying the seven NT verses where "Lord" does not mean Jesus Christ.
And I'm still waiting for you to explain the OT counterpart of 2Co 3:17, 18 "involving Yahweh."
the plain contextual meaning of the text.
Yes and no.
The first one is not, the second one is. . .proves nothing.
You have not shown that the kurios of 2Co 3:17, 18 means "God" the Father, rather than the "Lord" Jesus Christ.
2Co 3:17, 18 - "Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.
And we, who with unveiled faces all reflect the Lord's glory, are being transformed into his likeness, with ever increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit."
In the NT, freedom is in the Lord Jesus Christ (Gal 2:4, 5:1).
And the image of the Lord into which we are being transformed is Christ (Ro 8:29; Gal 4:19; 1Co 5:49).
Likewise, the Lord Jesus Christ and the Spirit are one, co-equal,
as shown in Ac 16:7; Ro 8:9; Gal 4:6 Php 1:19; 1Pe 1:11.
The context is clear.
The "Lord" of 2Co 3:17, 18 is the Lord Jesus Christ.
Are you finally going to present some NT verses where "Lord" specifically means God the Father?
I'll leave that to you in supplying the seven NT verses where "Lord" does not mean Jesus Christ.
And I'm still waiting for you to explain the OT counterpart of 2Co 3:17, 18 "involving Yahweh."
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Wrong.
Both instances of Kurios in 2 cor 3.17 are anarthrous!
You are confusing the arthrous Spirit with the anarthrous Kurios.
Proving, once again, that you are completely Greek ignorant.
Even google can’t help you out.
Little wonder you want to ditch anything to do with the original language, and, instead, follow your unsubstantiated and pitiful assertions.
Now...deal with the Greek of your example.
Not in my Greek text.
The first kurios is arthrous.
The first kurios is arthrous, and the second kurios is not.
I'm thinkin' you're trippin' over your Greek and stumbling into Biblical error,
missing the plain contextual meaning of the text.
A more relevant idea would be for you to deal with kurios in its following context:
2Co 3:17, 18 - "Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.
And we, who with unveiled faces all reflect the Lord's glory, are being transformed into his likeness, with ever increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit."
1) In the NT, the freedom (above) is in the Lord Jesus Christ (Gal 2:4, 5:1).
2) And the likeness of the Lord into which we are being transformed (above) is Christ (Ro 8:29; Gal 4:19; 1Co 5:49).
3) Likewise, the Lord Jesus Christ and the Spirit (above) are one, co-equal,
as shown in Ac 16:7; Ro 8:9; Gal 4:6 Php 1:19; 1Pe 1:11.
The context is clear.
The "Lord" of 2Co 3:17, 18 is the Lord Jesus Christ.
The first kurios is arthrous.
The first kurios is arthrous, and the second kurios is not.
I'm thinkin' you're trippin' over your Greek and stumbling into Biblical error,
missing the plain contextual meaning of the text.
A more relevant idea would be for you to deal with kurios in its following context:
2Co 3:17, 18 - "Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.
And we, who with unveiled faces all reflect the Lord's glory, are being transformed into his likeness, with ever increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit."
1) In the NT, the freedom (above) is in the Lord Jesus Christ (Gal 2:4, 5:1).
2) And the likeness of the Lord into which we are being transformed (above) is Christ (Ro 8:29; Gal 4:19; 1Co 5:49).
3) Likewise, the Lord Jesus Christ and the Spirit (above) are one, co-equal,
as shown in Ac 16:7; Ro 8:9; Gal 4:6 Php 1:19; 1Pe 1:11.
The context is clear.
The "Lord" of 2Co 3:17, 18 is the Lord Jesus Christ.
I'll not be trippin' through Greek technicalities with you, for two reasons:
1) I trust the over 100 language scholars who translated my Bible,
giving the text of 2Co 3:17, 18 as shown below.
And you have provided no corroborating NT verses to support your personal differing translation.
2) More important, I am interested in the much more relevant contextual Biblical meaning of the text.
Are you able to address it?
2Co 3:17, 18 - "Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.
And we, who with unveiled faces all reflect the Lord's glory, are being transformed into his likeness, with ever increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit."
1) In the NT, the freedom (above) is in the Lord Jesus Christ (Gal 2:4, 5:1).
2) And the likeness of the Lord into which we are being transformed (above) is Christ (Ro 8:29; Gal 4:19; 1Co 5:49).
3) Likewise, the Lord Jesus Christ and the Spirit (above) are one, co-equal,
as shown in Ac 16:7; Ro 8:9; Gal 4:6 Php 1:19; 1Pe 1:11.
The context is clear.
The "Lord" of 2Co 3:17, 18 is the Lord Jesus Christ.
And I'm still waiting for you to explain the OT counterpart of 2Co 3:17, 18 "involving Yahweh."
1) I trust the over 100 language scholars who translated my Bible,
giving the text of 2Co 3:17, 18 as shown below.
And you have provided no corroborating NT verses to support your personal differing translation.
2) More important, I am interested in the much more relevant contextual Biblical meaning of the text.
Are you able to address it?
2Co 3:17, 18 - "Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.
And we, who with unveiled faces all reflect the Lord's glory, are being transformed into his likeness, with ever increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit."
1) In the NT, the freedom (above) is in the Lord Jesus Christ (Gal 2:4, 5:1).
2) And the likeness of the Lord into which we are being transformed (above) is Christ (Ro 8:29; Gal 4:19; 1Co 5:49).
3) Likewise, the Lord Jesus Christ and the Spirit (above) are one, co-equal,
as shown in Ac 16:7; Ro 8:9; Gal 4:6 Php 1:19; 1Pe 1:11.
The context is clear.
The "Lord" of 2Co 3:17, 18 is the Lord Jesus Christ.
And I'm still waiting for you to explain the OT counterpart of 2Co 3:17, 18 "involving Yahweh."
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Thanks for continuing to expose your ignorance of the very Greek language that you are deriving your ‘one-hit-wonder-proof-text’ from.
This is what happens when someone calls you out on your meritless assertions – which you probably have been falsely propagating for years.
So…now….your ‘hundreds upon hundreds’ of Lord examples (that you keep asserting) have been reduced down to single digits.
This is why we take things one step at a time…to keep you from falling all over yourself in your error-filled logic.
One salient point at a time…so that everyone can see your entire assertion be dismantled, exegetically.
Re: For the 1,000th time...
I asked bowman a question..... not sure if you are responding to it....
Originally Posted by newbirth
well then if the HS comes from the Father and the Son...how do you explain one entity coming out from two entities ...
and which scripture says the HS proceeds from the Son???
I asked bowman a question..... not sure if you are responding to it....
well then if the HS comes from the Father and the Son...how do you explain one entity coming out from two entities ...
and which scripture says the HS proceeds from the Son???
Having a hard time keeping up with the following facts?
You seem rather confused about whose assertions are meritless and without contextual support.
Having a hard time keeping the facts straight again. . .regarding Lord and god,
and the single digits you asserted?
Good idea, it definitely seems to be necessary,
so you can start here, one salient point at a time, to address the context of 2Co 3:17, 18:
2Co 3:17, 18 - "Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.
And we, who with unveiled faces all reflect the Lord's glory,are being transformed into his likeness, with ever increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit."
1) In the NT, the freedom (above) is in the Lord Jesus Christ (Gal 2:4, 5:1).
2) And the likeness of the Lord into which we are being transformed (above) is Christ (Ro 8:29; Gal 4:19; 1Co 5:49).
3) Likewise, the Lord Jesus Christ and the Spirit (above) are one, co-equal,
as shown in Ac 16:7; Ro 8:9; Gal 4:6 Php 1:19; 1Pe 1:11.
The context is clear.
The "Lord" of 2Co 3:17, 18 is the Lord Jesus Christ.
4) And I'm still waiting for you to explain the OT counterpart of 2Co 3:17, 18 "involving Yahweh"
5) . . .and the seven NT verses where kurios specifically means God the Father.
You seem rather confused about whose assertions are meritless and without contextual support.
Having a hard time keeping the facts straight again. . .regarding Lord and god,
and the single digits you asserted?
Good idea, it definitely seems to be necessary,
so you can start here, one salient point at a time, to address the context of 2Co 3:17, 18:
2Co 3:17, 18 - "Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.
And we, who with unveiled faces all reflect the Lord's glory,are being transformed into his likeness, with ever increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit."
1) In the NT, the freedom (above) is in the Lord Jesus Christ (Gal 2:4, 5:1).
2) And the likeness of the Lord into which we are being transformed (above) is Christ (Ro 8:29; Gal 4:19; 1Co 5:49).
3) Likewise, the Lord Jesus Christ and the Spirit (above) are one, co-equal,
as shown in Ac 16:7; Ro 8:9; Gal 4:6 Php 1:19; 1Pe 1:11.
The context is clear.
The "Lord" of 2Co 3:17, 18 is the Lord Jesus Christ.
4) And I'm still waiting for you to explain the OT counterpart of 2Co 3:17, 18 "involving Yahweh"
5) . . .and the seven NT verses where kurios specifically means God the Father.
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While you are wondering about how you will ever defend the renderings of another (you will skip it entirely, no doubt!)....as you can only bark-out verse numbers...you are missing the simple English in your very own centerpiece...
Two Persons of The Trinity are in view, even in your English example.
The 'Holy Spirit'.....and 'The Glory' (i.e. Jesus).
Each is NOT the other, as determined by the Greek.
Your assertion is simply broken on so many levels, its hard to know where to even begin correcting you....and emanates from pure, unadulterated scriptural ignorance on your part.
Study up...