Elin,
Jn 6:37-40 - God having chosen some to be his sheep/children, whom he has given to Christ,
none of whom Christ shall lose, and all of whom he gives eternal life and raises at the last day;
Vs 39 is the atonement. It is universal. All things were given to Christ. Col 1:20. There is absolutely nothing in scripture that says only some things were given to Christ. All men will be raised in the last day. The pronoun "it" is actually refering to our human nature.
Why was it necessary that Christ defeat death and sin? The next verse (40) tells us. So that those that see and believe will be raised to everylasting life. Huge difference.
Jn 10:27-29, 11:51-52; Ro 8:28-39; Eph 1:3-14; 1Pe 1:20 - whom before the creation of the
word, God chose and predestined to be his adopted sons according to the purpose of his will and
for the praise of his glory, marking them in Christ with the seal of the Holy Spirit, who is a deposit
guaranteeing their inheritance; for whom he chose and sent Christ to save them;
God did not chose who would believe. Those that love Him, He predestined that they would be made holy, blameless, and conformed to His Image. He chose the elect, which is His Church, to be the recipients of those benefits. Not a single statement that He predestined any to eternal life. That is pure false Calvinism.
You keep forgetting that Christ needed to save the world before He could have any elect. You want the result or purpose without the event that makes it possible.
Jn 10:14-18, 27-29 - for which particular groups of sinners, not all sinners,
simple fact, John 10:11 is addressing THE sheep. You cannot have His Sheep unless and untill death and sin are defeated. That is the work of Christ, atonement, His gift to the world. 27-29 is the typical proof text for OSAS. The trouble the rest of scripture shows that man does not have any guarantees of his faith. But the point, it has nothing to do with the atonement. It is the purpose of the atonement.
Ro 5:8-10, 8:32 - but all the elect sinners,
already explained this as well. It just does not fit your Calvinistic theories. Vs 6-10 is all about mankind. It aligns with Col 1:20, II Cor 5:18-19. And again, the purpose of His atonment, so that man can live IN Christ, being saved by His life.
Gal 2:20, 3:13-14, 4:4-5; 1Jn 4:9-10; Rev 1:4-6, 5:9-10 - Christ laid down his life to purchase men for God from every tribe, language, people and nation;
Which does not refute that Christ first needed to defeat death and sin, so that He could call all men to repentance. It would be quite engenuous if God states He is calling all men to repentance, but not a single person could be inherit eternal life even if they responded, since Christ, in your view, did not defeat death and sin for everyone.
Gal 2:20 is speaking about baptism. It has nothing to do with the atonement.
3:13-14 is saying the same thing. Christ by His atonement made ONE man, Eph 2:16 both Jew and Gentile,in other words all men. And the benefits, namely receiving of the Spirit through faith. As I stated before if faith is the active word, it cannot be addressing the atonement. It is addressing the purpose of the atonement.
Gal 4:4-5 is very specific in that Christ redeemed all since all were under the law. No limitation here.
Same with I John 4:9-10, it is universal, not limited.
Rev 1:4-6 is procliaming Christ's sovereignty. Christ is the first born from the dead. It is addressing the atonement. The next verse 6 is addressing believers who are joined to Christ by baptism.
Rev 5:9-10 is a doxology to the Lamb who has inaugerated as new Age, the Messianic Age. again it is not specifically describing the atonement, though does refer to it.
Jn 17:9, 20 - and prayed only for them, specifically excluding "the world" (the rest of mankind) in his High Priestly prayer (Jn 17:1-26) immediately before his sacrifice of atonement
(it is unconscionable that he would specifically exclude any for whom he intended to die);
I have already explained this one which does not address atonement and is not a proof text for limited atonement either
His High Priestly Prayer has four parts, vs1-5 He is praying for Himself, vs 6-19 He is praying for His disciples, vs20-23 He is praying for His Church, and vs24-26 is all others or the world.
Jn 6:35, 47-51, 54-57; Ro 1:16, 10:8-13 - and promising all who come to Christ in faith will find mercy.
Which is the whole purpose of God creating man in the first place, then Christ redeeming man and the world from death and sin, so that the Holy Spirit can call all men to repentance. Those that see, hear, and believe shall inherit eternal life. Again, not addressing the atonement but the purpose of the atonement.
Now where is there any text that says Christ did not atone for sin, but only some sin?
Where is the text that says Christ did not defeat death, that there will be no resurection? Christ is the firstborn of the dead, not the firstborn of dead believers.
Explain to me where the limitation is in Heb 2:9 and I John 2:2? Or even in the equation of I Cor 15:22?