Walking/following is a work, an obedient work and the Christian cannot continue to have all his sin cleansed away/be saved if he does not continue in the obedient work of walking in the light, 1 Jn 1:7.
You are using 1 John 1:7 to teach that salvation is "maintained" by works, which is not the point that John is making. 1 John 1:6 If we say that we have fellowship with Him, and walk in darkness, we lie and do not practice the truth. 7 But if we walk in the light as He is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus Christ His Son cleanses us from all sin. It's one or the other. Either we walk in the light because we are in the light or else we walk in darkness because we are still in darkness. There is no middle ground.
Lk 1:6 does NOT say John's parents were righteous before God by faith only. They were blameless, not because they were perfectly sinless, but because they walked/obeyed the commandments and statutes of God. God's OT law allowed for various types of sacrifices for sins and John's parents would have obeyed in keeping those sacrifices for sins leaving them blameless before God.
They were both righteous before God (based on what?) What did Abraham do and it was accounted to him for righteousness? Abraham
BELIEVED God and it was
accounted to him for righteousness. So was Abraham accounted as righteous based on his faith or by works? (Genesis 15:6; Romans 4:2-3). Why would it be any different for John's parents? Why would it be any different for us? (Romans 4:5-6; Ephesians 2:8,9). Zacharias and Elisabeth were not righteous through their own goodness (Isaiah 64:6; Romans 3:10), but through their faith, just as with Noah (Hebrews 11:7) and Abraham (Romans 4:3). Even under the Old Testament, the only way to be in right standing with God was by faith (Hab. 2:4; Galatians 3:11). No one could keep the law perfectly (Romans 3:23), so faith had to be put in the mercy and forgiveness of God which was illustrated by the Old Testament blood sacrifices.
Abraham WALKED before God, walked here means he obeyed God, Heb 11:8,17. Walked does not mean he had belief only.
This "belief only" that you keep alluding to from James 2:24 is an empty profession of faith, a dead faith and not genuine faith (James 2:14). Of course Abraham walked before God BECAUSE he had genuine faith. If Abraham would have refused to sacrifice Isaac (Genesis 22; James 2:21) then he would have demonstrated his lack of faith, but Abraham's faith was accounted to him for righteousness (Genesis 15:6) many years before he obeyed God in Genesis 22.
And Paul said in Rom 4:12 "And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised." Again, 'walk' means to obey God as Abraham did, we are to walk/obey in the steps of that faith of Abraham.
Believers walk/obey God BECAUSE they are saved, not to become saved. You continue to try and "shoe horn" works "into" salvation through faith, not works. Works salvation is no salvation at all.
Those verses I quoted from the OT show how the word "walk" is used to refer to obeying God as "walking in the light" in 1 Jn 1:7 refers to an obedient work. Walking/obeying God is not legalism but is called "righteousness" as John's parents "walking" made them righteous not legalists, Lk 1:6.
Walking does not make us righteous. We walk in the light BECAUSE we are righteous, not to become righteous. You continue to read the Bible through the lens of salvation by works, which IS legalism. John's parents were righteous before the Lord because of their faith (cause) and walking in the all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless was the (effect). So how does a lost unbeliever walk in the light when he is still in darkness (Acts 26:18) in order to be made righteous? Your works based false gospel is simply Campbellite smoke and mirrors. For by grace we have been saved through FAITH? or by walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord? What does Ephesians 2:8,9 say? This is where you have to "shoe horn" works into salvation through faith, not works in order to make it fit your biased doctrine.
One is either walking in darkness or walks in the light, no inbetween.
Exactly! One is either in darkness or in the light (Acts 26:18; 2 Corinthians 6:14; Ephesians 5:8).
If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth:"
Here walking in darkness is equivalent to not doing the truth. It is not possible for one who continues to walk in darkness/that continues to do not the truth to ever be saved. Obviously he must first do the truth to be saved...."But he that doeth truth cometh to the light" Jn 3:21. One is in the dark and remains in the dark until he doeth truth.
One remains in darkness until he turns from darkness to light through FAITH in Christ. Acts 26:18 - to open their eyes, in order to
turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, that they may
receive forgiveness of sins and an inheritance among those who are
sanctified by faith in Me. In John 3:19-21, Jesus is giving a description of those who are condemned (they practice evil) and a description of those who are saved (they practice the truth). In verse 21, Jesus is giving a description of someone who is saved, they practice the truth and come to the light, they don't practice evil and hate the light. If Jesus is teaching that we are saved through obedience (works) which follow saving faith in Christ, then why didn't He mention it in the following verses? (John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions in each of these COMPLETE statements?
BELIEVES. *What happened to additional obedience/works as a prerequisite for salvation?
You are trying to find a way to get one to the light WITHOUT first DOING the truth.
DOING what truth? What truth do unbelievers do? They need to repent and believe the gospel in order to turn from darkness to light. Until then, they remain in darkness. John 3:20 Everyone who does evil hates the light, and will not come into the light for fear that his deeds will be exposed. 21 But whoever lives by the truth comes into the light, so that it may be seen
plainly that what he has done has been done through God. This is not works salvation.
Christ's NT baptism of the great commission in Col 2:12 is not an anti-type to OT circumcision. If it were then only males could be baptized and would have to be baptized on the 8th day yet baptism for remission of sins is for all.
Once again, the context shows that baptism is presented as the New Testament counterpart of circumcision in the Old Testament. They are presented in a careful parallel to each other. The one who is "in Christ" is circumcised with a
circumcision made "without hands." The parallel usage of circumcision and baptism demands that we understand the
"baptism" to be made "without hands" also. You missed this point. It's not about 8 days.
Col 2:11 when one is water baptized a spiritual circumcision takes place, a circumcision without hands where God does the work of removing the body of sin.
The spiritual circumcision takes place prior to receiving water baptism, a circumcision without hands where God does the work of removing the body of sin, which water baptism symbolizes and pictures.
1) this removal of the body of sin (salvation/remission of sins) does not take place until one is baptized.
That is false (Acts 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). Water baptism and not Christ's finished work of redemption is clearly the main object of your faith. 
Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen Col 2:12. Says nothing about a baptism "made without hands" but baptizo means a literal burial, immersion in water from which one is risen.
You continue to confuse the picture (water baptism) with the reality (Spirit baptism) just as Roman Catholics confuse the picture (bread and wine) with the reality (broken body and shed blood of Christ).
Lk 7:29 those that rejected John's baptism were saved to have been rejecting the counsel of God. So what can be said of those that refuse Christ's baptism of the great commission, Mt 28:19,20; Mk 15:15,16; Lk 24:47? They also are rejecting the counsel of God, rejecting the gospel:
Why would someone get water baptized who rejects the gospel? There are plenty of people who still get water baptized though who have been deceived into believing they have accepted the gospel, but they have actually accepted a different gospel of works salvation.
Then they that gladly received his word were baptized:..."
Then they that gladly received his word (through repentance/faith) were afterwards baptized.
Conversely, those that rejected Peter's gospel sermon rejected baptism. Then those that have not been baptized have not received the gospel.
Those who rejected Peter's gospel sermon signified this by refusing to get baptized. Those who accepted his gospel sermon signified this by getting baptized. Acts 10:43 - To Him all the prophets witness that, through His name, whoever
believes in Him will receive remission of sins. 44 While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who heard the word. 45 And those of the circumcision who believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because
the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also. 46 For they heard them
speak with tongues and magnify God. Then Peter answered, 47
"Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?"
