well you did put your foot in your mouth, no matter how hard it is (like how hard it is to read someone and come back with a reply like you did. especially when I states your reply was not the problem)
now to the problem.
the first two times, Jesus uses the greek word phileo ( a lower form of the word love) the third time, jesus uses the highest form of love "AGAPE" and peter could only reply by saying lord you know I "Phileo" you.
of course, you do not care that there is a hugely significant point being made here, which can not be made properly in the English language. so to you, this is insignificant, but I am sure to God. who wrote it, it makes a HUGE difference.
Sorry, you are placing your trust in some guy who is making you think there is a difference when no such difference actually exists in God's preserved Word for today. For God did not show you the men in history who were inspired by God to write out the correct view of what was to be the Word of God. The only true test is in looking at the fruit of what is in the different Bibles. There is no bad fruit in the KJV. But there is plenty of bad fruit in the Modern Versions, though. That is the test; And therein lies the difference.