Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,"

[eternally-gratefull]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Paul tells us in Col 2 that the removal of sins was accomplished by Christ and this could not be more true but he also tells us that this took place in the act of baptism in which we were raised from the dead.

1st off. Your right, he does tell us when it occures. When GOD THE HOLY SPIRIT baptizes us, Not when some sinner dunks us in water. (you have to drop the fact that baptism always means an act in water, it never did in the greek, and it does not in scripture)
2nd, Raised in him in faith (not water) is regeneration. Again, Paul tells us in Titus, that it was not by our own work of righteousness (which water baptism is) but by his mercy, the HS washed and renew us (it is the act of God. not an act of man.
3rd. Again, your trying to replace the work of God with the work of men. You holding God back to aact only when a man acts. A man could have faith which is pure. but until that act of man, He is still dead in sin.

It is here that he says God made us alive together with him, having forgiven us all our trespasses. The removal of sin in baptism is the act of God not is the symbols themselves. You insist this has to be Holy Spirit baptism but this is simply not what Paul said. It is water baptism that is the representation of the death burial and resurrection of Jesus. There is no passage of scripture anywhere that connects Holy Spirit baptism with the removal of sin. Here is a simple question EG. When Paul told the Ephesian Church that there is only one baptism, to which baptism was he referring?

Not the one performed by man, but the one performed by God.

1. John the baptist fortold Jesus would baptize in the spirit. It was a message he taught to everyone he spoke to. Jesus will baptize YOU (them) With the HS and fire
2. Jesus told us, we will be baptized by the spirit.
3. Peter witnessed the baptism of the spirit in gentiles

Peter made it clear Water baptism is a symbol (antitype) just like the waters of the flood was. It represents what truely saves us the living waters of God (the word, the HS) which can and will cleanse us, for you see, as peter said, water baptism does not remove filth from the flesh (sin from the old nature or soul) it is the answer of a good conscious towards God. the resurrection of Christ is what saves us, not water.

Rom 6. ! cor 12, Col 2, All are spirit baptism. Not water baptism. the context does not fit water baptism.

As paul said.

1 Cor 6: 11 - But you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus and by the Spirit of our God.

By the spirit. not by some man in some bathtub or river.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

If the one baptism of Ephesians 4 is Holy Spirit then why did the apostles continue to practice water baptism?

Actually tne NT spoke of many baptisms

John
Water (christian)
In Moses
Ceremonial washings
Holy SPirit
Fire

But only one saves.

Which is it, the one performed by men, or the one performed by God?

 

[oldhermit]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Actually tne NT spoke of many baptisms

John
Water (christian)
In Moses
Ceremonial washings
Holy SPirit
Fire

But only one saves.

Which is it, the one performed by men, or the one performed by God?

Don't try to analyze or add word to what Paul said, just answer the question. When Paul told the Ephesian Church that there is only one baptism, to which baptism was he referring?

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Don't try to analyze or add word to what Paul said, just answer the question. When Paul told the Ephesian Church that there is only one baptism, to which baptism was he referring?

Who is analysing?

It is the one John the baptist fortold (He will baptise you with the HS
It is the one Jesus fortold (You will be baptised with the HS
It is the one Peter witnessed (Who was I to withstand the gentiles were baptised with the spirit as we (jews) were
The one Paul spoke of (Baptized INTO CHRIST, INTO HIS DEATH, INTO HIS BODY (not water)
The spiritual baptism Paul mentions in the Colossion church, The circumcision done without the hands of men.
Baptism represented being cleansed. Paul said we are cleansed by the hand of God, Washed by the hand of God. etc etc.

It is not the baptism in water, If it was. Paul belittled it by not including it in the gospel of Christ.

Again, your problem is you see a transliterated word (it is not even a translation of the origional text, but a transliteration) and assume it always means a physical act in water. That would be incorrect thinking. and lead you to believe the way you do.

I can not, of good conscience, do that.

 

[oldhermit]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Who is analysing?

It is the one John the baptist fortold (He will baptise you with the HS
It is the one Jesus fortold (You will be baptised with the HS
It is the one Peter witnessed (Who was I to withstand the gentiles were baptised with the spirit as we (jews) were
The one Paul spoke of (Baptized INTO CHRIST, INTO HIS DEATH, INTO HIS BODY (not water)
The spiritual baptism Paul mentions in the Colossion church, The circumcision done without the hands of men.
Baptism represented being cleansed. Paul said we are cleansed by the hand of God, Washed by the hand of God. etc etc.

It is not the baptism in water, If it was. Paul belittled it by not including it in the gospel of Christ.

Again, your problem is you see a transliterated word (it is not even a translation of the origional text, but a transliteration) and assume it always means a physical act in water. That would be incorrect thinking. and lead you to believe the way you do.

I can not, of good conscience, do that.

If there is only one then that means the other is no more. If it is not water baptism then why did Paul and the rest of the apostles continue to practice water baptism.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

If there is only one then that means the other is no more. If it is not water baptism then why did Paul and the rest of the apostles continue to practice water baptism.

there was NEVER only one. How much more proof does one have to show you before you realize this? Your stuck on a transliterated word. and not on the actual word (and defenition) used by the apostles to write scripture.

let me ask you this. In the OT, God commanded circumcision. Yet we are told non of the works of the OT (including priestly sacrifice of bulls and goats) never saved anyone.

So why did they continue to practice this physical act. when it never would cleanse them?

it is the same question. answer this, and you will answer your own question.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

If there is only one then that means the other is no more. If it is not water baptism then why did Paul and the rest of the apostles continue to practice water baptism.

While your at it, you seem to be a person who likes to study, and learn what things meant.

Can you show us some examples of the word baptizo as it was used in classical greek literature, and other writings of the time period of Christ and the apostles? For it is sure to shed light on the situation of what the word actually means, and the people who spoke the language would have interpreted it.

 

[notuptome]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

If the one baptism of Ephesians 4 is Holy Spirit then why did the apostles continue to practice water baptism?

You know why don't be coy with me. If water could wash away sin then it would require many applications because we continue to sin until we are glorified in Christ. The Holy Spirit baptism is a continuing baptism that keeps us in Christ while we dwell on this earth below. One day this tabernacle of mud will fall away and we will be clothed in His righteousness and we will dwell in a resurrected body like His glorious body.

Today we are saved from the power of sin one day we will be saved from the very presence of sin. Today we baptize with water to symbolize the obedience and submission we have experienced in receiving our salvation from Christ by grace through faith.

For the cause of Christ
Roger

 

[oldhermit]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

there was NEVER only one. How much more proof does one have to show you before you realize this? Your stuck on a transliterated word. and not on the actual word (and defenition) used by the apostles to write scripture.

let me ask you this. In the OT, God commanded circumcision. Yet we are told non of the works of the OT (including priestly sacrifice of bulls and goats) never saved anyone.

So why did they continue to practice this physical act. when it never would cleanse them?

it is the same question. answer this, and you will answer your own question.

You know as well as I do that fleshly circumcision is no longer binding. Paul said there is only one baptism. Did he lie about that or was he simply mistaken?

 

[oldhermit]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

You know why don't be coy with me. If water could wash away sin then it would require many applications because we continue to sin until we are glorified in Christ. The Holy Spirit baptism is a continuing baptism that keeps us in Christ while we dwell on this earth below. One day this tabernacle of mud will fall away and we will be clothed in His righteousness and we will dwell in a resurrected body like His glorious body.

Today we are saved from the power of sin one day we will be saved from the very presence of sin. Today we baptize with water to symbolize the obedience and submission we have experienced in receiving our salvation from Christ by grace through faith.

For the cause of Christ
Roger

You are still not answering the question. If there is only one then that means the other is no more. If it is not water baptism then why did Paul and the rest of the apostles continue to practice water baptism.

 

[seed_time_harvest]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

GOD relates to us in our spirits and only GOD can clean the inside but men get baptized in water symbolizing to men that they have been born of the spirit and now they are living for GOD.



Matthew 5:16
king james version(kjv)

16.)Let your light so shine before men, that they may see your good works, and glorify your Father which is in heaven.

 

[notuptome]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

You are still not answering the question. If there is only one then that means the other is no more. If it is not water baptism then why did Paul and the rest of the apostles continue to practice water baptism.

You are the one saying that not the bible. One baptism to salvation and water baptism is symbolic of that one Holy Spirit baptism. According to Philip and the eunuch Holy Spirit baptism is a prerequisite for water baptism. If thou believest thou mayest.

Are you depending on your water baptism to save you?

For the cause of Christ
Roger

 

[oldhermit]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

You are the one saying that not the bible. One baptism to salvation and water baptism is symbolic of that one Holy Spirit baptism. According to Philip and the eunuch Holy Spirit baptism is a prerequisite for water baptism. If thou believest thou mayest.

Are you depending on your water baptism to save you?

For the cause of Christ
Roger

I am not the one who said it. Paul tells us there is only one baptism. He does not say there is only one baptism that saves nor does he qualify this in any other terms. He says simply that there is one baptism. The only two baptisms we are discussing is H.S. baptism and water baptism. If there is now only one baptism which one did the apostles continue to practice throughout the book of Acts?

 

[mailmandan]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Abraham was SAVED BEFORE Genesis 15.

Abraham was saved before he BELIEVED the Lord in Genesis 15:6 and it was accounted to him for righteousness? Where does the Bible say that Abraham's faith was accounted to him for righteousness before Genesis 15? Does Genesis 12 say that Abraham left his home and it was accounted to him for righteousness before he believed the Lord in Genesis 15?

What about Genesis 12

12The Lord had said to Abram, “Go from your country, your people and your father’s household to the land I will show you.

[SUP]2 [/SUP]“I will make you into a great nation,
and I will bless you;
I will make your name great,
and you will be a blessing.[SUP][a][/SUP]
[SUP]3 [/SUP]I will bless those who bless you,
and whoever curses you I will curse;
and all peoples on earth
will be blessed through you.”[SUP][b][/SUP]

[SUP]4 [/SUP]So Abram went, as the Lord had told him; and Lot went with him. Abram was seventy-five years old when he set out from Harran. [SUP]5 [/SUP]He took his wife Sarai, his nephew Lot, all the possessions they had accumulated and the people they had acquired in Harran, and they set out for the land of Canaan, and they arrived there.

[SUP]6 [/SUP]Abram traveled through the land as far as the site of the great tree of Moreh at Shechem. At that time the Canaanites were in the land. [SUP]7 [/SUP]The Lord appeared to Abram and said, “To your offspring[SUP][c][/SUP] I will give this land.” So he built an altar there to the Lord, who had appeared to him.
[SUP]8 [/SUP]From there he went on toward the hills east of Bethel and pitched his tent, with Bethel on the west and Ai on the east. There he built an altar to the Lord and called on the name of the Lord.
[SUP]9 [/SUP]Then Abram set out and continued toward the Negev.

Genesis 12 COMES BEFORE Genesis 15

What about Genesis 12? Abraham's faith was not accounted to him for righteousness until Genesis 15 and Genesis 15 COMES AFTER Genesis 12.

Abraham believed and OBEYED God in Genesis 12.

Yet God did not yet tell Abraham in Genesis 15:5 -"Look now toward heaven, and count the stars if you are able to number them." And He said to him, "So shall your descendants be." 6 And he believed in the Lord, and He accounted it to him for righteousness.

Genesis 15 says this

6Abram believed the Lord, and he credited it to him as righteousness.

Amen!

You CAN NOT pull Romans 4:2-3 OUT OF THE CONTEXT of chapters 2,3 and 4 and have it make sense. That whole section starts in chapter 2 and that whole section is speaking to the ISRAELITES NOT GENTILES. The gentiles DID NOT HAVE THE LAW.

Romans 2

17Now you, if you call yourself a Jew; if you rely on the law and boast in God;

[SUP]25 [/SUP]Circumcision has value if you observe the law, but if you break the law, you have become as though you had not been circumcised. [SUP]26 [/SUP]So then, if those who are not circumcised keep the law’s requirements, will they not be regarded as though they were circumcised? [SUP]27 [/SUP]The one who is not circumcised physically and yet obeys the law will condemn you who, even though you have the[SUP][c][/SUP] written code and circumcision, are a lawbreaker.


Romans 3

1What advantage, then, is there in being a Jew, or what value is there in circumcision? [SUP]2 [/SUP]Much in every way! First of all, the Jews have been entrusted with the very words of God.

[SUP]9 [/SUP]What shall we conclude then? Do we have any advantage? Not at all! For we have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under the power of sin

[SUP]19[/SUP]Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be silenced and the whole world held accountable to God. [SUP]20 [/SUP]Therefore no one will be declared righteous in God’s sight by the works of the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of our sin.


[SUP]21 [/SUP]But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify.[SUP]22 [/SUP]This righteousness is given through faith in[SUP][h][/SUP] Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile, [SUP]23 [/SUP]for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, [SUP]24 [/SUP]and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. [SUP]25 [/SUP]God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement,[SUP][i][/SUP] through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— [SUP]26 [/SUP]he did it to demonstrate his righteousness at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.

[SUP]27[/SUP]Where, then, is boasting? It is excluded. Because of what law? The law that requires works? No, because of the law that requires faith. [SUP]28 [/SUP]For we maintain that a person is justified by faith apart from the works of the law. [SUP]29 [/SUP]Or is God the God of Jews only? Is he not the God of Gentiles too? Yes, of Gentiles too, [SUP]30 [/SUP]since there is only one God, who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through that same faith. [SUP]31 [/SUP]Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law.

Romans 4

1What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh, discovered in this matter?

Paul's thoughts throughout that was that the Israelites would NOT BE SAVED by the righteous works of the law.

The Law also includes the MORAL aspect which includes all good works. In Matthew 22:37-40, we read: Jesus said to him, 'You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind.' This is the first and great commandment. And the second is like it: 'You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' "On these two commandments hang all the Law and the Prophets." Please tell me which good works, works of obedience, works of righteousness could a Christian accomplish that are completely detached from these two great commandments which are found in the Law of Moses? (Deuteronomy 6:5; Leviticus 19:18). This is the MORAL aspect of the Law. Are there any genuine good works that Christians do which fall outside of loving God and our neighbor as ourself? The Bible nowhere teaches that we are "saved by" good works/works of obedience/works of righteousness etc.. and just not works of the Law. People who teach salvation by works read Ephesians 2:8,9 like it says, by grace you have been saved through faith "and good works" (which you cannot detach from the MORAL aspect of the Law)...just not works of the Law, like circumcision.

 

[mailmandan]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

You had acknowledged earlier that one of the reasons you discounted the importance of baptism in salvation was the fact that it is not mentioned in all of the conversion examples.

Faith is the culminating act in receiving salvation in conversion, not baptism.

Now, after I point out that baptism is mentioned in more examples than another element except belief which is only outnumbers the mention of baptism by one, suddenly the frequency of mention is no longer important. If you still do not believe what Acts 2:38 tells us about the relationship of baptism to the remission of sin

I believe that in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. Faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38; 3:19; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31). *Perfect Harmony*

then let us look at Acts 22:16. "And now why do you wait? Rise and be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on his name." Paul was commanded to be baptized and wash away his sins. If baptism is not part of this process then why was Paul commanded to be baptized? If Paul was saved before he was baptized when he believed then why did his sins still need to be washed away? Do you believe that Paul was already saved even before his sins were removed?

As I already stated in post #131 - The Greek aorist participle, epikalesamenos, translated "calling on His name" refers either to action that is simultaneous with or before that of the main verb, "be baptized." Here Paul’s calling on Christ’s name for salvation preceded his water baptism. The participle may be translated "having called on His name" which makes more sense, as it would clearly indicate the order of the events. Kenneth Wuest picks up on this Greek nuance and translates the verse as follows: "And now, why are you delaying? Having arisen, be baptized and wash away your sins, having previously called upon His Name" (Acts 22:16, Wuest's Expanded NT). As Greek scholar AT Robertson points out - baptism is the picture of death, burial and resurrection, so here baptism pictures the change that had already taken place when Paul surrendered to Jesus on the way. Baptism here pictures the washing away of sins by the blood of Christ. Our sins are already washed away by the blood of Christ and we are saved when we repent/believe/call upon the name of the Lord (Acts 3:19; Acts 10:43; Romans 3:24-26; 10:13) BEFORE water baptism. Paul tells that he did not receive or hear the Gospel from Ananias, but rather he heard it directly from Christ. Galatians 1:11-12 says, "For I would have you know, brethren, that the gospel which was preached by me is not according to man. For I neither received it from man, nor was I taught it, but I received it through a revelation of Jesus Christ." It also should be noted that Paul at the time when Ananias prayed for him to receive his sight, he was filled with the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17)--this was before he was baptized (Acts 9:18). Verse 17 connects his being filled with the Spirit with the receiving of his sight. We know that he received his sight prior to his water baptism. It is also interesting that when Paul recounted this event again later in Acts (Acts 26:12-18), he did not mention Ananias or what Ananias said to him at all. Verse 18 again would confirm the idea that Paul received Christ as Savior prior to receiving water baptism since here Christ is telling Paul he will be a messenger for Him concerning forgiveness of sins for Gentiles as they have faith in Him. It would seem unlikely that Christ would commission Paul if Paul had not yet believed in Him and was not saved.

*No single text of scripture is to be interpreted out of context, and this includes the entirety of scripture. No scripture is to be interpretated in isololation from the totality of scripture. Practically speaking, a singular and obscure verse is to be subservient to multiple and clear verses, and not vice versa.

 

[mailmandan]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

I am not the one who said it. Paul tells us there is only one baptism. He does not say there is only one baptism that saves nor does he qualify this in any other terms. He says simply that there is one baptism. The only two baptisms we are discussing is H.S. baptism and water baptism. If there is now only one baptism which one did the apostles continue to practice throughout the book of Acts?

Why did Paul say that by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body in 1 Corinthians 12:13 if this one baptism is water baptism and Spirit baptism no longer exists? There is only one baptism that places us into the body of Christ and unites all believers in one body and that is Spirit baptism, not water baptism. Ephesians 4:5 fits together perfectly with 1 Corinthians 12:13.

Ephesians 4:5 - One Lord, one faith, one baptism.

1 Corinthians 12:13 - For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body..

If Spirit baptism no longer exists, then how are believers placed into the body of Christ? Plain ordinary H20 has no power to accomplish this. Ephesians 1:13 tells us when and how this happens - In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation - having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise.

 

[BradC]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

soo...this is still happening.

be baptized, for Jesus' sake.

i'm out.

The great thing for me being baptized was that I was clean and forgiven and knew that God had done it, and my heart later came under conviction and was baptized knowing that was what God wanted. It was such a simple step of child like faith and was good for the heart.

 

[oldhermit]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Faith is the culminating act in receiving salvation in conversion, not baptism.

I believe that in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. Faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38; 3:19; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31). *Perfect Harmony*

This is not at all how the Greek syntax is portrayed in this verse and if you have had more than a couple of years of Greek you should know better than to even suggest this. There is nothing in the Greek syntax of this passage to suggests that "each one of you be baptized" is in any way parenthetical and not part of the same clause. Both μετανοήσατε and βαπτισθήτω are linked together by the conjunction καὶ as dual imperatives within the SAME CLAUSE which together produce a desired result - forgiveness of sin and the gift of the Holy Spirit. He is not talking to two separate groups of people here offering two separate sets of instruction.

 

[oldhermit]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Why did Paul say that by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body in 1 Corinthians 12:13 if this one baptism is water baptism and Spirit baptism no longer exists? There is only one baptism that places us into the body of Christ and unites all believers in one body and that is Spirit baptism, not water baptism. Ephesians 4:5 fits together perfectly with 1 Corinthians 12:13.

Ephesians 4:5 - One Lord, one faith, one baptism.

1 Corinthians 12:13 - For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body..

If Spirit baptism no longer exists, then how are believers placed into the body of Christ? Plain ordinary H20 has no power to accomplish this. Ephesians 1:13 tells us when and how this happens - In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation - having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise.

You are still not dealing with the question I asked you. If there is now only one baptism which one did the apostles continue to practice throughout the book of Acts? If the only baptism that is valid is Holy Spirit baptism then why did the apostles continue to teach and practice water baptism in Acts. If there is only one, then only one can be valid. Why is it so hard for three people to answer this simple question. All anyone has done is try to talk around this question but no one seems willing to answer it.

 

[mailmandan]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

This is not at all how the Greek syntax is portrayed in this verse and if you have had more than a couple of years of Greek you should know better than to even suggest this. There is nothing in the Greek syntax of this passage to suggests that "each one of you be baptized" is in any way parenthetical and not part of the same clause. Both μετανοήσατε and βαπτισθήτω are linked together by the conjunction καὶ as dual imperatives within the SAME CLAUSE which together produce a desired result - forgiveness of sin and the gift of the Holy Spirit. He is not talking to two separate groups of people here offering two separate sets of instruction.

Greek scholar AT Robertson and Greek scholar Daniel Wallace and Greek scholar E Calvin Beisner have had more than a couple of years and Greek and they do not agree with you. Not all Greek scholars who have had more than a couple of years of Greek agree with you so your argument is inconclusive and if both repentance and water baptism "both" produce the forgiveness of sins, then Acts 2:38 is in contradiction with Acts 3:19 which connects repentance (not baptism) to conversion/sins blotted out; and Acts 10:43 which connects believes in Him (implied in repentance, not baptism) with remission of sins. Also, in Acts 10:45-47, we see that these Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) AND spoke in tongues, which is a spiritual gift for the body of Christ only (1 Corinthians 12) BEFORE they were water baptized. Acts 11:17 states they received the gift of the Holy Spirit when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ (compare with Acts 16:31 - believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) and this happened BEFORE they were water baptized. Acts 11:18 refers to this as repentance unto life. Repentance "change of mind" and the new direction of this change of mind is faith in Christ/believing on the Lord Jesus Christ (two sides to the same experience). In Acts 15:8 we read that God gave them the Holy Spirit...9 purifying their hearts by faith, not baptism. It amazes me to see how people are willing to have the Bible contradict itself simply to accommodate a biased view of one verse. The Bible says numerous times that we are saved through faith/when we believe in Him (John 3:15,16,18,36; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 3:22-30; 4:5-6; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Ephesians 2:8,9 etc.. and this is established before water baptism or any works are accomplished, so if we are not saved until we accomplish a work after we believe in Him/place faith in Christ for salvation, then these numerous verses in the Bible would be in error, which cannot be the case. Bottom line - Scripture MUST harmonize with other Scripture or else we have a contradiction.