"Test everything, hold fast to that which is good" (1 Thessalonians 5:21)
If you were to ask 10 fellow christians which commandments of the Bible we should be following today, you would likely get 10 different answers. It's common today for people to say that certain parts of God's law have been "done away with" or "nailed to the cross" or "only for the jews" or "fulfilled so that we don't have to obey them anymore". But is this the truth?
This thread is addressed to anyone who believes that certain parts of the law no longer apply. See how many of the following questions you can answer without causing contradiction in scripture. Please keep in mind, the purpose here is to study the word of God, and to seek his will. We need to leave personal feelings and pre-concieved ideas out of our reading, and ask ourselves, "what does God want". I am not attemping to cause any hostility or division here. Only to reveal the truth.
1. If the law of God is perfect, how can we say that what was perfect has been made better?
"The law of the Lord is perfect" (psalm 19:7)
2. If the law of God is freedom. how can freedom be "bondage" as many ministers label it as today?
"I will always obey your law, or ever and ever. I will walk about in freedom, for I have sought out your precepts. "(psalm 119:44-45)
3. Can what is declared to be true become untrue?
"Trouble and anguish have taken hold on me: yet thy commandments are my delights." (psalm 119:143)
4. Can the way of righteousness change? Especially after God repeatedly says throughout scripture that He never changes?
“Listen to Me, you who know righteousness, You people in whose heart is My law." (Isaiah 51:7)
5. If the law of God is forever, when did "forever" become temporary?
Sabbath = Forever (Lev. 16:31)
Covenant = Forever (1 Chron 16:15)
Law = Forever (psalm 119:160)
Word = Forever (Isaiah 40:8)
6. Since the Law of God is what defines sin, can what is defined as sin suddenly become good and acceptable?
"Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." (1 John 3:4)
7. If God is the word, and God does not change, how can we say the word of God has changed?
(John 1:1) (Malachi 3:6)
8. If we are to delight in the law, when did it stop being a delight?
"For I delight in the law of God after the inward man."(Romans 7:22) (psalm 1:2)
9. If Christ walked according to law of God, and we are to follow Christ's example, why do we not also follow the law of God?
10. If keeping all of God's commandments is the whole duty of man, is that no longer true?
"Let us hear the conclusion of the whole matter: Fear God, and keep his commandments: for this is the whole duty of man." (Ecclesiastes 12:13)
11. If ALL scripture is instruction in righteousness, why do so many christians think that we are not supposed to practice all scripture?
(1 Timothy 3:16)
12. Mathew 5:17-18 specifically says that the law of God cannot change until heavens and earth pass away. So why is it so commonly taught that the law HAS changed, even though christ warned that those who promote this false teaching will be called "least in the kingdom of heaven"?
13. If Christ said to observe everything that is taught from Moses' seat, why refuse to do what Christ said?
"Then Jesus said to the crowds and to his disciples: “The teachers of the law and the Pharisees sit in Moses’ seat. So you must be careful to do everything they tell you. But do not do what they do, for they do not practice what they preach." (Mathew 23:1-3)
14. If Paul said that he obeyed God's law, and that there is no difference between jew and greek, how can we feel comfortable plucking small snippets out of Paul's letters, and using them to teach that the law of God has been abolished?
15. How can Paul be teaching people to follow God's law, but be against obeying God's law at the same time?
"Do we nullify the law by this faith? By no means. Rather, we uphold the law" (Romans 3:31)
16. If we are to love God by keeping His commandments, why do we keep only some of His commandments?
"This is how we know that we love the children of God: by loving God and carrying out his commands. In fact, this is love for God: to keep his commands. And his commands are not burdensome" (1 john 5:2-3)
17. Why do so many people mistakingly use Pauls letters to teach that certain laws of God no longer apply when Peter warned against this? Based on the following passage, Paul's letters are probably the worst books of the bible to use when it comes to teaching against God's commandments....
"Bear in mind that our Lord’s patience means salvation, just as our dear brother Paul also wrote you with the wisdom that God gave him. He writes the same way in all his letters, speaking in them of these matters. His letters contain some things that are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort, as they do the other Scriptures, to their own destruction. Therefore, dear friends, since you have been forewarned, be on your guard so that you may not be carried away by the error of the lawless and fall from your secure position."(2 Peter 3:15-17)
If you were to ask 10 fellow christians which commandments of the Bible we should be following today, you would likely get 10 different answers. It's common today for people to say that certain parts of God's law have been "done away with" or "nailed to the cross" or "only for the jews" or "fulfilled so that we don't have to obey them anymore". But is this the truth?
This thread is addressed to anyone who believes that certain parts of the law no longer apply. See how many of the following questions you can answer without causing contradiction in scripture. Please keep in mind, the purpose here is to study the word of God, and to seek his will. We need to leave personal feelings and pre-concieved ideas out of our reading, and ask ourselves, "what does God want". I am not attemping to cause any hostility or division here. Only to reveal the truth.
1. If the law of God is perfect, how can we say that what was perfect has been made better?
"The law of the Lord is perfect" (psalm 19:7)
2. If the law of God is freedom. how can freedom be "bondage" as many ministers label it as today?
"I will always obey your law, or ever and ever. I will walk about in freedom, for I have sought out your precepts. "(psalm 119:44-45)
3. Can what is declared to be true become untrue?
"Trouble and anguish have taken hold on me: yet thy commandments are my delights." (psalm 119:143)
4. Can the way of righteousness change? Especially after God repeatedly says throughout scripture that He never changes?
“Listen to Me, you who know righteousness, You people in whose heart is My law." (Isaiah 51:7)
5. If the law of God is forever, when did "forever" become temporary?
Sabbath = Forever (Lev. 16:31)
Covenant = Forever (1 Chron 16:15)
Law = Forever (psalm 119:160)
Word = Forever (Isaiah 40:8)
6. Since the Law of God is what defines sin, can what is defined as sin suddenly become good and acceptable?
"Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." (1 John 3:4)
7. If God is the word, and God does not change, how can we say the word of God has changed?
(John 1:1) (Malachi 3:6)
8. If we are to delight in the law, when did it stop being a delight?
"For I delight in the law of God after the inward man."(Romans 7:22) (psalm 1:2)
9. If Christ walked according to law of God, and we are to follow Christ's example, why do we not also follow the law of God?
10. If keeping all of God's commandments is the whole duty of man, is that no longer true?
"Let us hear the conclusion of the whole matter: Fear God, and keep his commandments: for this is the whole duty of man." (Ecclesiastes 12:13)
11. If ALL scripture is instruction in righteousness, why do so many christians think that we are not supposed to practice all scripture?
(1 Timothy 3:16)
12. Mathew 5:17-18 specifically says that the law of God cannot change until heavens and earth pass away. So why is it so commonly taught that the law HAS changed, even though christ warned that those who promote this false teaching will be called "least in the kingdom of heaven"?
13. If Christ said to observe everything that is taught from Moses' seat, why refuse to do what Christ said?
"Then Jesus said to the crowds and to his disciples: “The teachers of the law and the Pharisees sit in Moses’ seat. So you must be careful to do everything they tell you. But do not do what they do, for they do not practice what they preach." (Mathew 23:1-3)
14. If Paul said that he obeyed God's law, and that there is no difference between jew and greek, how can we feel comfortable plucking small snippets out of Paul's letters, and using them to teach that the law of God has been abolished?
15. How can Paul be teaching people to follow God's law, but be against obeying God's law at the same time?
"Do we nullify the law by this faith? By no means. Rather, we uphold the law" (Romans 3:31)
16. If we are to love God by keeping His commandments, why do we keep only some of His commandments?
"This is how we know that we love the children of God: by loving God and carrying out his commands. In fact, this is love for God: to keep his commands. And his commands are not burdensome" (1 john 5:2-3)
17. Why do so many people mistakingly use Pauls letters to teach that certain laws of God no longer apply when Peter warned against this? Based on the following passage, Paul's letters are probably the worst books of the bible to use when it comes to teaching against God's commandments....
"Bear in mind that our Lord’s patience means salvation, just as our dear brother Paul also wrote you with the wisdom that God gave him. He writes the same way in all his letters, speaking in them of these matters. His letters contain some things that are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort, as they do the other Scriptures, to their own destruction. Therefore, dear friends, since you have been forewarned, be on your guard so that you may not be carried away by the error of the lawless and fall from your secure position."(2 Peter 3:15-17)
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