What it boils to is HOW does Jesus have a divine nature is it by virtue of Jesus being God Himself or is it be virtue of Jesus being the ONLY BEGOTTEN SON of God? And what does that mean to be the only begotten Son of God?
I think "begotten" is referring to the fact that every other "son" (humanity; angels) was *created* by God...so the term "son" is used very very loosely for we and angels. But none of those "sons" are from the very bosom of the Father, except for one. Christ. None of them proceed from the father's essence except for Christ.
The shadow/earthly example we were given of this spiritual reality, I feel, is found in the siring by a father of his son (or daughter). Yet this example is limiting due to biology and the fact that we have to
create our children...but the principle *relationship* is still there.
A son (or daughter) proceeds from their father's essence. Before we exist, we are in our father's body existing as part of him. (Scripture attests to children as "seeds within" their forefathers prior to birth.) Then that father's essence passes into fertile ground (a womb) and we exist; separate from our father, but essentially of his very essence. Now we know as far as humanity goes, we also receive from our Mother's essence during that process but that fact should only strengthen this example; that while we are from our parents, we are also equal to their essence. We are separate persons but still
essentially them (root word
essence).
On a heavenly level, Christ also proceeds from the Father; of His very essence but a separate person. But note while we humans are limited, they are everlasting. So while we proceed
ed (past tense; finite) from our parents, Christ proceed
s (present tense; ongoing...) from the Father. He's still a unique person (as we are from our parents) yet also equal in essence (as we are to our parents).
So we are human because our parents are human...and Christ is divine because The Father is divine.
Does being begotten actually make Jesus Yahweh Himself?
Christ is "Yahweh" because The Father gave him His name.
My father's name is David...and his firstborn son is also named David. My father gave his firstborn son his own name. So not only is David's firstborn son equal to him in essence...he also carries his very name. Yet they're two different persons.
There's an interesting passages found in Zechariah 3 where, if we restore God's name, we see - what I think is - an interesting example of both Father and Son being mentioned by The Son, to Joshua in Zechariah's vision.
Zechariah 3:1-2
3 And he shewed me Joshua the high priest standing before the [messenger] of [Yahweh], and Satan standing at his right hand to resist him.
2 And [Yahweh] said unto Satan, "[Yahweh] rebuke thee, O Satan; [Yahweh] that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee: is not this a brand plucked out of the fire?"
Yahweh told Satan that Yahweh rebukes him. Yet if this was the same "Yahweh" speaking of himself wouldn't he have said "I" like he did so many other times in the OT. No, from the context the "Angel of the Yahweh's" name is "Yahweh" ("angel" simply meaning "messenger"). This messenger was speaking for God and advocating for Joshua against the accuser. So I don't think there's any doubt that it was Christ speaking here, as he is always been our advocate.
Then that messenger says in verse 7...
7 Thus saith [Yahweh] of hosts; If thou wilt walk in my ways, and if thou wilt keep my charge, then thou shalt also judge my house, and shalt also keep my courts, and I will give thee places to walk among these that stand by.
So this tells me that before The Father gave Christ the name Jesus ["Yahshua" (Heb. for "Yah saves")] for his mission, The Father gave Christ his own name.
Why does Paul seem to make a clear distinction in those passages between God and Christ? Paul clearly says God exalted Him in Philippians 2 and does NOT SAY GOD THE FATHER exalted Him.
1 Corinthians says this
Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. [SUP]28 [/SUP]When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.
How is Jesus co-equal if Jesus the Son of God is made subject to God?
The truth regarding equality of essence is completely separate from the parent-child relationship regarding *authority* (i.e. who's in charge). And as no human son is (or should be) equal to or over their father in authority, so likewise is Christ not over or equal to The Father in authority.
Now in the realm of royalty, authority followed the name of the king. In other words, to say "I come in the name of the king" carried as much authority as if the king was there himself...but whoever gave that name (The King) was always over the authority of whoever could bear that name.
So in giving his only son his name, The Father also gave The Son all of his authority. Yet this fact doesn't contradict the fact that they're equal in essence (like we are to our parents), nor does it suggest that The Father can't - one day - take back his authority (as scripture prophesies), once Christ's job is finally complete.
