KJV "And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day."
We need to go beyond 1 year of Greek to exegete this verse.
"THAT" introduces a PURPOSE CLAUSE. This not stating the current condition of the believer. It is stating the PURPOSE of God sending His Son.
The indicative mood can't be used in a purpose clause, that is why we see the subjunctive mood in " May have eternal life."
Again, this NOT stating the condition of the believer at a given time. It is stating the PURPOSE of God sending His Son.
We need to go beyond 1 year of Greek to exegete this verse.
"THAT" introduces a PURPOSE CLAUSE. This not stating the current condition of the believer. It is stating the PURPOSE of God sending His Son.
The indicative mood can't be used in a purpose clause, that is why we see the subjunctive mood in " May have eternal life."
Again, this NOT stating the condition of the believer at a given time. It is stating the PURPOSE of God sending His Son.
I do not agree.
Having everlasting life is CONDITIONAL upon one having a present tense seeing and believing. If not, then you can have one still gaining everlasting life but has quit seeing and believing......yet unbelief is a pre-condemned state, Jn 3:18. Therefore one MAY HAVE everlasting life depending upon the circumstance that he conditionally keeps on seeing and believing. There is no indicative "shall have" everlasting life whether he continues to see and believe or quits.
You posted "God sent His Son for the PURPOSE/PROBABILITY of giving the believer eternal life."
Will Jesus unconditionally give everlasting life to those who do not, never have believed? No
Will Jesus unconditionally give everlasting life to those who once believed, yet quit turning back to unbelief? No
Therefore Jesus' "purpose" is NOT to give everlasting life to those that do not believe or who once believed but have quit.