Remarriage Bibically

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DiscipleDave

Senior Member
Sep 4, 2012
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Since my experience in that group, my heart goes out to abused women who chose to divorce, rather than suffer physical damage to their bodies. My heart goes out to all those who are divorced by their spouses, for reasons not including abuse or adultery. My heart goes out to those whose marriages turned black and ugly, instead of being a place of love, nurture and caring.
And your heart goes out to the abusive husbands too, right? LOVE ONE ANOTHER, applies to EVERYONE.

While I would agree the divorce rates in our society are too high, perhaps they are unnaturally high for a reason - because men and women are sinful people, and are have lost sight of the living God in their lives.
This is so True. Also there is a high divorce rate, because this generation is so quick to throw in the towel, to call it quits, desire somebody NEW. They do not understand, that God will test every marriage. There is no such thing as a perfect marriage. EVERY good marriage has a story of a time, when they could have thrown in the towel, but did not. and because they did not, it is only then that God Blesses that marriage, and it will prosper. But today, when a marriage is being tested, this generation is very quick to throw in the towel, very quick to seek a divorce, and therefore that marriage is NOT Blessed by God, and not only that marriage but those that come after will not be Blessed as well.

^i^ responding to post #133
 

iwant2serve

Senior Member
Apr 12, 2009
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I facilitated a group for abused women in 2004. There were 10 women in the group. It took nearly 6 months before each one admitted they were Christians. In a secular abuse group!

One woman divorced her husband after he shot her and tried to kill her. He was serving time in jail.

One woman was living with a sexually abusive man. She wouldn't give the group details, but she started crying every time she talked about what was wrong in her marriage.

One woman was still with her husband. He would not give her money for food. He bought the booze. Sadly, she did not know with a joint checking account she could cash his cheques and buy food and pay the bills. I set her straight on that one. For the first time, she was not beaten down and cringing, knowing that she could actually feed herself and their son.

Another woman had a physically abusive husband. He would beat her, the children. He would smash the computers, TVs, throw furniture out the window. She called the police repeatedly, and he was thrown out. But she went back to him, because 5 children were too hard to handle on her own.

Another woman was systematically being physically, sexually emotionally abused. And the excuse the husband used was that it was his "right" as a Christian husband to do as he pleased.

And so on... These were the ones that really stood out to me. The others were not as vocal - they were just timid and scared, and beaten down.

So 10 Christian women. Their husbands are all abusive, really evil men in some cases.

The wives divorce, in some cases. They have been sinned against by their abusive husbands. Now they are supposed to remain celibate and have no love the rest of their lives?

Because their husbands were abusive and sinful men?

Seems like the husbands are the ones needing to experience the consequences of their actions, not the wives.

Abuse is a kind of adultery. It separates the bonds between husband and wives. It destroys trust and love.

So why was it not written into the Bible? Maybe because God had other issues he wanted to talk about?

Or maybe adultery is a BIG issue, because the Old Testament is full of examples of prophets calling out Israel and Judah for their spiritual adultery? I just read through the major prophets, and I am reading the minor prophets. It stands out so strongly that spiritual adultery is the reason for the destruction of Israel and the captivity of Judah in Babylon.

"Will you steal, murder, commit adultery, swear falsely, make offerings to Baal, and go after other gods that you have not known," Jer. 7:9

"For they have committed adultery, and blood is on their hands. With their idols they have committed adultery, and they have even offered up to them for food the children whom they had borne to me." Eze. 23:27

"They sacrifice on the tops of the mountains
and burn offerings on the hills,
under oak, poplar, and terebinth,
because their shade is good.
Therefore your daughters play the whore,
and your brides commit adultery.
[SUP]14 [/SUP]I will not punish your daughters when they play the whore,
nor your brides when they commit adultery;
for the men themselves go aside with prostitutes
and sacrifice with cult prostitutes,
and a people without understanding shall come to ruin." Hosea 4:13-15

Since my experience in that group, my heart goes out to abused women who chose to divorce, rather than suffer physical damage to their bodies. My heart goes out to all those who are divorced by their spouses, for reasons not including abuse or adultery. My heart goes out to those whose marriages turned black and ugly, instead of being a place of love, nurture and caring.

While I would agree the divorce rates in our society are too high, perhaps they are unnaturally high for a reason - because men and women are sinful people, and are have lost sight of the living God in their lives.
I agree it is a sad thing for anyone to be in a abusive marriage and they should seek a way out but does that change what the bible says? It seems people think I am some heartless man wanting to destroy families and that is the total opposite of who I am and what I am saying. We cannot change what God said because things did not go the way that would be pleasing to us or the thing became dangerous.
 

iwant2serve

Senior Member
Apr 12, 2009
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So scripture have out clause built in them?
That has been SHOWN to you... but you will not LOOK at it!!![/QUOTE]

Grace is not a out clause to any sin. This is what I keep saying and you continue to apply grace as if it is a ticket to keep on going in what God said is against his word.
 
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Kaycie

Guest
When we look at a bible topic, we have to consider all the scriptures on the matter. Not every scripture includes all the details. Take John 3:16 for example. If that is the only scripture to consider, some say all you have to do is believe. But what about the scripture that says faith without works is dead? Does it make the other scripture obsolete? No, you still have to have faith, but it must be an active faith.

In the same way, some scriptures say you can only divorce if your spouse has sex with another, and if you divorce for that reason, and another marries this known cheater, they are guilty of adultery also. So if you shorten it, and say that who ever marries a divorced person, it is assumed that the person is divorced for having sex with another, since that is the only reason for divorce. The one who did not cheat is free to remarry, just as a widow or widower is free to remarry.

See that there is this exception in Matthew 19:9 whoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication... (Now if it is for fornication, the rest of the sentence does not apply to you.) There is a difference between being the one who divorces (on biblical grounds) and being divorced. Whoever marries the person divorced for committing fornication commits adultery. But whoever marries the innocent one who had to divorce the other for cheating on them, it is the same as if they married a widow or widower, because of the cheater that marriage was put to death. Jesus says there is an exception, so there's an exception, and this is what it is- if your spouse sexually cheats on you, you have a right to divorce and later marry another.
 
Aug 15, 2009
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I have made a post like this before and have been considered none biblical for this stance. These scriptures I use to support my view. Please supply scriptures with your post rather you agree or disagree.
Now in my understanding these scriptures say if no fornication (sexual immorality which includes adultery) has been committed and there is a remarriage it is adultery. Is this a lawful marriage because you ask God for forgiveness? Can something God called unlawful become acceptable because you are forgiven?

Luke 16:18 - Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from [her] husband committeth adultery.
1Cor 7:10-11 - And unto the married I command, [yet] not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from [her] husband:[SUP]11[/SUP] But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to [her] husband: and let not the husband put away [his] wife.
1 Corinthians 7:15 - But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such [cases]: but God hath called us to peace.

Matthew 5:32 - But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Matthew 19:9 - And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except [it be] for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Romans 7:2 - For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to [her] husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of [her] husband.
Mark 10:10-11- And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her.And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.
The word 'committeth' does not connotate a continual or perpetual act. How then can this one sin be considered perpetual?

We can't deal with adultery without covering what constitutes marriage in God's eyes. The Law states when a man 'takes' a woman they're considered "one" (married) in God's eyes. That would mean every man & woman that had committed adultery would be a perpetual sinner to the end, for they left the first one they were with. Did you have sex before marriage? Then by your standards you're an adulterer even now, for you left that woman & "married" someone else.

What about all the couples who are in ministry today who as sinners did such things? How can God bless a perpetual sinner & never convict them of their sin?


What about the woman caught in adultery? How then could Jesus say "go, and sin no more" if she was made one with all those men? How could she "undo" all that?

Remember Rahab the harlot? She joined with Israel & married an Israelite lawfully after her former career, being in the lineage of Christ, & one of the few women mentioned as such. According to your interpretation, she was still an adultress.

Then let's not forget David & Bathsheba. Premetitated adultery & murder, & according to the Law, even the kings were to be stoned for it. Yet not only was David forgiven, God chose the child of adultery to be the next king & made him the wisest one Israel ever had. All under the Law.

Now, if God could forgive David against His law, & Jesus forgave the woman caught in adultery & told her to sin no more, then obviously the acts committed were not perpetual. Either that, or God's grace, mercy & forgiveness is WAAAAAY greater than we all realize.

Are we commanded to forgive? Can a murderer or rapist undo his deed?

Forgive them. Jesus forgave his murderers while still on the cross, saying they didn't know what they were doing. Shouldn't we do the same?

Remember, as a pastor every one you minister to you are accountable for..... especially if you taught them false doctrine or hold them accountable for a sin that doesn't exist. The watchman is always accountable.

James 3:1 (NASB) Let not many of you become teachers, my brethren, knowing that as such we will incur a stricter judgment.
James 3:1 (NLT) Dear brothers and sisters, not many of you should become teachers in the church, for we who teach will be judged more strictly.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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angela53510 wrote
So 10 Christian women. Their husbands are all abusive, really evil men in some cases.

The wives divorce, in some cases. They have been sinned against by their abusive husbands. Now they are supposed to remain celibate and have no love the rest of their lives?
There are a lot of really, really bad things people can do that are not fornication. If a woman marries a man and he gets angry, sees the person he is angry at, gets in a fight, kills him, and gets locked up for murder and has to go to prison for life, that's not adultery. But do you expect the wife to remain celibate for life?

Or what about non-sin issues. A woman once told me about her relatives who were separated by the Berlin wall. The husband got stuck in East Germany when the wall went up. She was in West Germany on the other side and moved to your country. He did not get out until she wad dead. Should the woman live celibate for life? Or what about a man or woman married to someone who is in an accident or is a vegetable or who has Alzheimer's. Should such a person live celibate for life? Does this justify divorce?

It must be pretty rotten to be married to a drunk who gambles away the money. But that doesn't mean one can divorce this person and marry someone else.

We also need to keep in mind that 'abuse' gets defined much more broadly than physical abuse. Men who beat up their wives are called abusive, but there is also 'verbal abuse.' And some people use that not for the really obvious stuff like put-downs and name calling, but for things they consider manipulative. And some of the domestic violence industry include quoting scripture to ones wife (e.g. Ephesians 5 or I Peter 3), using logic, and not giving her money when she wants it as 'abuse'. Some clergymen have added abuse as a justification for divorce and remarriage, one that Christ and the apostles did not give. Then other people expand the definition of abuse.

If someone has been given a tough row to hoe, do we have a right to say, your row is tough, you don't have to row it? If God has assigned that to the individual, can we say it is not that person's assignment.

And the Bible doesn't give 'adultery' as grounds for divorce. That is a different word. The word in Matthew 19 is 'porneia.' One of the most conservative interpretations is that he is talking about premarital sexual immorality, in line with the passage on stoning the non-virgin married off with a bride prince.

Abuse is a kind of adultery. It separates the bonds between husband and wives. It destroys trust and love.
So, if you want the Bible to read a certain way, you can just redefine basic words in the language? Adultery may be a form of 'abuse', but there are lots of forms of 'abuse' that definitely are not adultery. In the 10 commandments, there is 'thou shalt not kill' and 'thou shalt not commit adultery.' Murder isn't adultery, and adultery isn't murder. I suppose someone could work out a way to work adultery into physical abuse, but generally it's not the same thing.

Physical and verbal abuse are not, in general, adultery. But telling people that abuse is adultery can certainly lead them to commit adultery in some cases.

If we are loose with the words of Christ and with scripture, we end up with what we have now, nations full of people who have committed adultery.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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The word 'committeth' does not connotate a continual or perpetual act. How then can this one sin be considered perpetual?


Look that up in Greek.



We can't deal with adultery without covering what constitutes marriage in God's eyes. The Law states when a man 'takes' a woman they're considered "one" (married) in God's eyes. That would mean every man & woman that had committed adultery would be a perpetual sinner to the end, for they left the first one they were with. Did you have sex before marriage? Then by your standards you're an adulterer even now, for you left that woman & "married" someone else.
Huh? Where did he say this in his post? You are making some huge, unjustifiable leaps. In the Old Testament, the man who slept with an unbetrothed virgin had to marry her....IF her father would give her to him. The marriage wasn't automatic. Sex did not make them married. Your leap here isn't supportable.

What about all the couples who are in ministry today who as sinners did such things? How can God bless a perpetual sinner & never convict them of their sin?
We don't know who God convicts of what. This particular issue aside, I do get tired of people justifying their behavior by saying, "I don't feel convicted", as if conviction is purely an emotional thing. I'm not just talking about this, but if your brother comes to you and tells you something is wrong and shows you in the Bible, you should be 'convicted' enough with the facts, whether you feel sorrow over the sin or not.

What about the woman caught in adultery? How then could Jesus say "go, and sin no more" if she was made one with all those men? How could she "undo" all that?
First of all, you are reading your assumptions into the text. Second, how about if she didn't sleep with those other guys she wasn't married to anymore?

Remember Rahab the harlot? She joined with Israel & married an Israelite lawfully after her former career, being in the lineage of Christ, & one of the few women mentioned as such. According to your interpretation, she was still an adultress.
Some translate that 'inn keeper', but let's say the traditional word is correct. That doesn't prove your point without reading assumption back into the text.


Then let's not forget David & Bathsheba. Premetitated adultery & murder, & according to the Law, even the kings were to be stoned for it. Yet not only was David forgiven, God chose the child of adultery to be the next king & made him the wisest one Israel ever had. All under the Law.
David was justified by faith as we see in Romans 4. But it's not a good example 'perpetual adultery' since Uriah was dead when he married Bathsheba.

Now, if God could forgive David against His law, & Jesus forgave the woman caught in adultery & told her to sin no more, then obviously the acts committed were not perpetual. Either that, or God's grace, mercy & forgiveness is WAAAAAY greater than we all realize.
Your argument against your opponent holds no water. If Jesus had told the woman she could continue sleeping with the guy they apparently caught her with without sinning, you might have a case. He didn't say that. And again, Uriah was dead.

 
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BarlyGurl

Guest
That has been SHOWN to you... but you will not LOOK at it!!!
Grace is not a out clause to any sin. This is what I keep saying and you continue to apply grace as if it is a ticket to keep on going in what God said is against his word.[/QUOTE]

NO I have NOT!!! you seem to have a reading comprehension problem or a intellectual defect or maybe you are JUST STUBBORN!!! Go back and read the posts I wrote... they are very plain... you just for whatever reason don't GET IT!
Grace IS NOT license to sin.... tho some people sure do USE IT THAT WAY!!! But when they do, it is a pretty good indicator that they are apostate/not saved anyway.
BELEIVERS.... ACTUAL BORN AGAIN CHRISTIANS... are not bound to covenant breakers who LEAVE/DIVORCE them either by literal adultery or spiritual adultery.... and the scripture supports that ENTIRELY!!
Once I had a wrong understanding like YOU do ... so I have hope that you will finally get it... but that remains to be seen. You can either study and PRAY for understanding of the whole counsel of God and finally get it... or you can stick with your misunderstood "topical" study for yourself... no skin off my butt either way.
 
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BarlyGurl

Guest
Are you getting at the fact that the 'exception clause' in Matthew only applies to a man divorcing a woman, and not vice versa, and that the Bible never gives the woman the right or power to divorce her spouse? Jesus only mentioned wives divorcing husbands to forbid it. I read that here was one known case of a wife divorcing her husband in Judaism, and that was Herodias divorcing Phillip with the help of the chief priests, before she remarried Herod, an incestuous marriage to her brother in law, and the prophet John the Baptist said to Herod, "It is unlawful for thee to have her."

I Corinthians 7
[SUP]39 [/SUP]A wife is bound by law as long as her husband lives; but if her husband dies, she is at liberty to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord.

Romans 7
[SUP]2 [/SUP]For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband. [SUP]3 [/SUP]So then if, while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man.

Mark 10
[SUP]10 [/SUP]In the house His disciples also asked Him again about the same matter. [SUP]11 [/SUP]So He said to them, “Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her. [SUP]12 [/SUP]And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.”
(KJV)
Presidente, I do not know if you are speaking/questioning me to me or agree/supporting my commentary? I am real clear on the issue and reading my full comments should clear that up. :)
 

iwant2serve

Senior Member
Apr 12, 2009
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So what I continue to see is that when Jesus says to remarry after divorce and no fornication has been committed all I have to do is ask for forgiveness and now it is no more adultery.
This is what I am seeing being said, Grace comes in ahead of any sin I will commit and as long as I ask for forgiveness I can continue to do something God said was a sin.
I will ask this once more and please give a answer that will make sense.
If God said whoever divorces except fornication was committed and marries another commits adultery and whoever marries one who is divorced commits adultery. If I read with clear understanding God is saying you enter a unlawful union He that he does not approve of because it is adultery (sin). Scripture says that as long as the husband is alive the wife is bound to him with the exception given of adultery. Does forgiveness now make the union lawful and approved by God?
 
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BarlyGurl

Guest
maybe a great big dry-erase board with picture tutorial and scripture references would help you...:rolleyes:
 
Aug 15, 2009
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Originally Posted by Stephen63

The word 'committeth' does not connotate a continual or perpetual act. How then can this one sin be considered perpetual?
Look that up in Greek.

It says 'adultery'..... but it doesn't say "adulteries", like these scriptures:
Matthew 15:19-20 (KJV) [SUP]19 [/SUP]For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies: [SUP]20 [/SUP]These are the things which defile a man: but to eat with unwashen hands defileth not a man.
Mark 7:21-23 (KJV) [SUP]21 [/SUP]For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed evil thoughts, adulteries, fornications, murders, [SUP]22 [/SUP]Thefts, covetousness, wickedness, deceit, lasciviousness, an evil eye, blasphemy, pride, foolishness: [SUP]23 [/SUP]All these evil things come from within, and defile the man.



We can't deal with adultery without covering what constitutes marriage in God's eyes. The Law states when a man 'takes' a woman they're considered "one" (married) in God's eyes. That would mean every man & woman that had committed adultery would be a perpetual sinner to the end, for they left the first one they were with. Did you have sex before marriage? Then by your standards you're an adulterer even now, for you left that woman & "married" someone else.

Huh? Where did he say this in his post? You are making some huge, unjustifiable leaps. In the Old Testament, the man who slept with an unbetrothed virgin had to marry her....IF her father would give her to him. The marriage wasn't automatic. Sex did not make them married. Your leap here isn't supportable.
Again, the scripture:
1 Corinthians 6:16 (NASB) Or do you not know that the one who joins himself to a prostitute is one body with her? For He says, "THE TWO shall become one flesh."



What about all the couples who are in ministry today who as sinners did such things? How can God bless a perpetual sinner & never convict them of their sin?

We don't know who God convicts of what. This particular issue aside, I do get tired of people justifying their behavior by saying, "I don't feel convicted", as if conviction is purely an emotional thing. I'm not just talking about this, but if your brother comes to you and tells you something is wrong and shows you in the Bible, you should be 'convicted' enough with the facts, whether you feel sorrow over the sin or not.
You don't think that honest christians in ministry would tell the truth? And you never explained how they're still blessed.


What about the woman caught in adultery? How then could Jesus say "go, and sin no more" if she was made one with all those men? How could she "undo" all that?

First of all, you are reading your assumptions into the text. Second, how about if she didn't sleep with those other guys she wasn't married to anymore?
1 Corinthians 6:16 (NASB) Or do you not know that the one who joins himself to a prostitute is one body with her? For He says, "THE TWO shall become one flesh."
No assumptions.


Remember Rahab the harlot? She joined with Israel & married an Israelite lawfully after her former career, being in the lineage of Christ, & one of the few women mentioned as such. According to your interpretation, she was still an adultress.


Some translate that 'inn keeper', but let's say the traditional word is correct. That doesn't prove your point without reading assumption back into the text.
1 Corinthians 6:16 (NASB) Or do you not know that the one who joins himself to a prostitute is one body with her? For He says, "THE TWO shall become one flesh."


Then let's not forget David & Bathsheba. Premetitated adultery & murder, & according to the Law, even the kings were to be stoned for it. Yet not only was David forgiven, God chose the child of adultery to be the next king & made him the wisest one Israel ever had. All under the Law.


David was justified by faith as we see in Romans 4. But it's not a good example 'perpetual adultery' since Uriah was dead when he married Bathsheba.
So, we're supposed to kill the husband to stop perpetual sin? That'll go over good with the rest of the church! LOL!

Now, if God could forgive David against His law, & Jesus forgave the woman caught in adultery & told her to sin no more, then obviously the acts committed were not perpetual. Either that, or God's grace, mercy & forgiveness is WAAAAAY greater than we all realize.


Your argument against your opponent holds no water. If Jesus had told the woman she could continue sleeping with the guy they apparently caught her with without sinning, you might have a case. He didn't say that. And again, Uriah was dead.
First of all, AJ's not my opponent, he's my friend.
And about my answers not holding no water..... I didn't see your evidence of scripture..... anywhere.

Come to think of it, I don't remember presidente EVER talking to folks like this..... Are you who you say you are?
 
Aug 15, 2009
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So what I continue to see is that when Jesus says to remarry after divorce and no fornication has been committed all I have to do is ask for forgiveness and now it is no more adultery.
No sir, it's a single sin like any of the others, & once it's done, it's over. After that, a second act with a second person has to take place for it to be a second sin. That's why once makes a man an adulterer & multiple times with multiple people makes him a whoremonger.

This is what I am seeing being said, Grace comes in ahead of any sin I will commit and as long as I ask for forgiveness I can continue to do something God said was a sin.
No, sir..... ask for forgiveness after the one sin as any other, it is NOT continual. It's not a license to sin.
I will ask this once more and please give a answer that will make sense.
If God said whoever divorces except fornication was committed and marries another commits adultery and whoever marries one who is divorced commits adultery. If I read with clear understanding God is saying you enter a unlawful union He that he does not approve of because it is adultery (sin). Scripture says that as long as the husband is alive the wife is bound to him with the exception given of adultery. Does forgiveness now make the union lawful and approved by God?
I wouldn't say approved, but forgiven, nevertheless. God forgave David & accepted his new marriage it by establishing Solomon as his heir. David NEVER asked for Solomon as heir. That was God's choice.

With millions of couples who did this when sinners & now as christians blessed by God, how can we argue against the blessings of God? God's blessing means His approval. He doesn't approve us as sinners; He approves us as forgiven.

That's grace..... unmerited favor with God.
:)
 
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iwant2serve

Senior Member
Apr 12, 2009
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Can you show me where the Bible says that?
1: cor 7:29 A woman is bound to her husband as long as he lives. But if her husband dies, she is free to marry anyone she wishes, but he must belong to the Lord.

Roman 7:2-3 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.
 
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NikkiK

Guest
It is my understanding that the divorce taking place at the time were these written certificates by the husband to the wife. I remember hearing that in church once but I do not know where to find the information.

What I heard was that men on a whim who did not want their wife were writing them a certificate. It was not lawful or legal.

No one is touching the subject about a married believer and unbeliever living in peace. The word says they may part ways if they cannot live in peace. Peace is not a lack of war necessarily but something with harmony. This may also be a cause of divorce.

Can someone confirm or debunk what I have said first here? I will look into it more as well.
 

iwant2serve

Senior Member
Apr 12, 2009
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To Stephen63 Post #154
David committed adultery one time which was the first time he slept with her, when he married her Uriah husband was dead so she was free to marry anyone.
Also Jesus in Matthew 19 cleared it all up by saying:
But I say whoever divorces his wife except for fornication and marries another commits adultery and who ever marries her commits adultery.
Jesus has not said this is how it is.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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It is my understanding that the divorce taking place at the time were these written certificates by the husband to the wife. I remember hearing that in church once but I do not know where to find the information.

What I heard was that men on a whim who did not want their wife were writing them a certificate. It was not lawful or legal.

No one is touching the subject about a married believer and unbeliever living in peace. The word says they may part ways if they cannot live in peace. Peace is not a lack of war necessarily but something with harmony. This may also be a cause of divorce.

Can someone confirm or debunk what I have said first here? I will look into it more as well.
Nikki, are you referring to 1 Corinthians 7:12-15? V. 15 says, "But if the unbeliever leaves, let him do so. A believing man or woman is not bound in such circumstances; God has called us to live in peace."

My understanding of that passage is saying that if a believer finds him/herself married to an unbeliever, that alone is not cause for divorce. The believer is not to leave, but if the unbeliever leaves, the believer is considered free... and I believe the context indicates "free to remarry". Paul is clear in discouraging believers from marrying unbelievers, but if one is saved after marriage, this situation arises.

The passages on this subject use the terms 'bound' and 'free' fairly consistently to mean married and single, respectively.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Nikki the first part of your post is referring to Matthew 5:31-32, Matthew 19:3-10, or Mark 10:2-12. It sounds like you are working without an exhaustive concordance; you can find one online through Google.