Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,
My question is why did he command it? Scripture never represents baptism as "a means to proclaim your allegiance to Him publicly." This definition of baptism comes from outside scripture.
By this logic, if belief was a requirement to be saved, every single time the gospel is given in scripture, belief would be mentioned - and yet, it is not.
Very well. You were good enough to respond to my question, now I will respond to your question on 1Cor. 1:17. I am a man of my word.
"Now I exhort you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that you all agree and that there be no divisions among you, but that you be made complete in the same mind and in the same judgment. For I have been informed concerning you, my brethren, by Chloe’s people, that there are quarrels among you. Now I mean this, that each one of you is saying, “I am of Paul,” and “I of Apollos,” and “I of Cephas,” and “I of Christ.” Has Christ been divided? Paul was not crucified for you, was he? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul? I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius, so that no one would say you were baptized in my name. Now I did baptize also the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I do not know whether I baptized any other. For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not in cleverness of speech, so that the cross of Christ would not be made void." I Corinthians 1:10-17
This does not minimize the place of baptism. The first point you have to recognize is that Paul DID baptize. All you have to do is read his history in Acts to see this. If the fact that the Lord had not sent Paul to baptize removes baptism from the salvation continuum why then did he baptize? Secondly, you have to acknowledge the fact that those of Corinth where baptized. When Paul addressed the Church at Corinth he was not diminishing the importance of baptism nor his practice of it. If you will notice he is charging those at Corinth of misrepresenting their baptism. The fact is, they were all baptized, some by Paul, some by Peter, and some by Apollos. The reason he was glad he had only baptized a few of them was not because baptism has no part in salvation but as he said, "I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius, so that no one would say you were baptized in my name." For this reason he was glad he was not part of the division that was occurring in Corinth over who had baptized them. He did not want any of them saying, "I am of of Paul." He waned no part of this.
When Paul said that the Lord had not sent him to baptize does not meant that baptism is not part of the salvation process nor that baptism is not from the Lord. This is the same type of language we see from Jeremiah 7:22-23, “For I did not speak to your fathers, or command them in the day that I brought them out of the land of Egypt, concerning burnt offerings and sacrifices. “But this is what I commanded them, saying, ‘Obey My voice, and I will be your God, and you will be My people; and you will walk in all the way which I command you, that it may be well with you."
Does this mean that God had given no commandments concerning the offering of burnt offerings and sacrifices or that these were not required as part of the covenant God had made with Israel? Of course not. All you have to do is read Exodus and Leviticus to see this is not true. "This is what I commanded... ‘Obey My voice, and I will be your God, and you will be My people;" Baptism is as much a part of the gospel that Paul and every other apostle preached as the burnt offerings and sacrifices were to Israel in obeying the voice of the Lord.
Baptism is required simply because Jesus commanded it. It is a means to proclaim your allegiance to Him publicly.
But it is not a requirement to be saved. If it were, every single time the gospel is given in scripture, baptism would be mentioned - and yet, it is not.
Paul said he did not come to baptize, but to preach the gospel. (1 Corinthians 1:17) And he also said; "I am glad I did not baptize any of you except Crispus and Gaius." If baptism is a requirement for salvation, what Paul said makes no sense at all, and in fact, he would be speaking against the gospel.
"Now I exhort you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that you all agree and that there be no divisions among you, but that you be made complete in the same mind and in the same judgment. For I have been informed concerning you, my brethren, by Chloe’s people, that there are quarrels among you. Now I mean this, that each one of you is saying, “I am of Paul,” and “I of Apollos,” and “I of Cephas,” and “I of Christ.” Has Christ been divided? Paul was not crucified for you, was he? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul? I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius, so that no one would say you were baptized in my name. Now I did baptize also the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I do not know whether I baptized any other. For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not in cleverness of speech, so that the cross of Christ would not be made void." I Corinthians 1:10-17
This does not minimize the place of baptism. The first point you have to recognize is that Paul DID baptize. All you have to do is read his history in Acts to see this. If the fact that the Lord had not sent Paul to baptize removes baptism from the salvation continuum why then did he baptize? Secondly, you have to acknowledge the fact that those of Corinth where baptized. When Paul addressed the Church at Corinth he was not diminishing the importance of baptism nor his practice of it. If you will notice he is charging those at Corinth of misrepresenting their baptism. The fact is, they were all baptized, some by Paul, some by Peter, and some by Apollos. The reason he was glad he had only baptized a few of them was not because baptism has no part in salvation but as he said, "I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius, so that no one would say you were baptized in my name." For this reason he was glad he was not part of the division that was occurring in Corinth over who had baptized them. He did not want any of them saying, "I am of of Paul." He waned no part of this.
When Paul said that the Lord had not sent him to baptize does not meant that baptism is not part of the salvation process nor that baptism is not from the Lord. This is the same type of language we see from Jeremiah 7:22-23, “For I did not speak to your fathers, or command them in the day that I brought them out of the land of Egypt, concerning burnt offerings and sacrifices. “But this is what I commanded them, saying, ‘Obey My voice, and I will be your God, and you will be My people; and you will walk in all the way which I command you, that it may be well with you."
Does this mean that God had given no commandments concerning the offering of burnt offerings and sacrifices or that these were not required as part of the covenant God had made with Israel? Of course not. All you have to do is read Exodus and Leviticus to see this is not true. "This is what I commanded... ‘Obey My voice, and I will be your God, and you will be My people;" Baptism is as much a part of the gospel that Paul and every other apostle preached as the burnt offerings and sacrifices were to Israel in obeying the voice of the Lord.
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