I was only responding to your quote with no timeline on it ...
You are traipzing into the area of "If it is possible for a true Christian to ultimately deny their Lord."...and thus perish.
I don't believe so but I don't go there.
You are traipzing into the area of "If it is possible for a true Christian to ultimately deny their Lord."...and thus perish.
I don't believe so but I don't go there.
Hebrews 6:1-6 (NASB)
[SUP]1 [/SUP]Therefore leaving the elementary teaching about the Christ, let us press on to maturity, not laying again a foundation of repentance from dead works and of faith toward God, [SUP]2 [/SUP]of instruction about washings and laying on of hands, and the resurrection of the dead and eternal judgment. [SUP]3 [/SUP]And this we will do, if God permits. [SUP]4 [/SUP]For in the case of those who have once been enlightened and have tasted of the heavenly gift and have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit, [SUP]5 [/SUP]and have tasted the good word of God and the powers of the age to come, [SUP]6 [/SUP]and then have fallen away, it is impossible to renew them again to repentance, since they again crucify to themselves the Son of God and put Him to open shame.
Isn't it something how many scriptures have been symbolized to explain them away, yet NONE of the false teachers' doctrine has ever been symbolized to do the same thing?
God's Word is symbolized.
Man's word is literal.
WHICH should get the preeminence?