Faith Alone?

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Nov 22, 2015
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Angela53510 had this to say about Paul and James..I thought it was excellent..it's long but thorough a and well documented..

And you were dead in the trespasses and sins [SUP]2 [/SUP]in which you once walked, following the course of this world, following the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that is now at work in the sons of disobedience— [SUP]3 [/SUP]among whom we all once lived in the passions of our flesh, carrying out the desires of the body and the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, like the rest of mankind. [SUP]4 [/SUP]But God, being rich in mercy, because of the great love with which he loved us, [SUP]5 [/SUP]even when we were dead in our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ—by grace you have been saved[SUP]6 [/SUP]and raised us up with him andseated us with him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, [SUP]7 [/SUP]so that in the coming ages he might show the immeasurable riches of his grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus.[SUP]8 [/SUP]For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, [SUP]9 [/SUP]not a result of works, so that no one may boast. [SUP]10[/SUP]For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand,that we should walk in them." Eph. 2:1-10

The author of Ephesians, which may be Paul, states clearly in the above verses TWICE that we are saved by grace. In Greek, verse 8 is a bit different because the word grace or τῇ (γὰρ) χάριτί has a definite article, because "salvation" has already been mentioned. Paul wanted his readers to remember what he wrote only a few verses back in verse 5 - "by grace you have been saved!!" This is a powerful statement of the gospel.

"τῇ γὰρ χάριτί ἐστε σεσῳσμένοι διὰ πίστεως· καὶ τοῦτο οὐκ ἐξ ὑμῶν, θεοῦ τὸ δῶρον" Eph. 2:8

Continuing with the verse above, σεσῳσμένοι or sesosmenoi from soso, (which is the same word used in Eph. 2:5,) in the same tense. It is the perfect passive participle, and means "to rescue, to save." Perfect points to the completed action with a continuing result, thus emphasizing the continual state or condition. It is vital to note that σεσῳσμένοι is in the passive, indicating it is something done TO US, not something we do ourselves. God saves us, we do not save or justify ourselves - not by works, lest anyone should boast.

However, since salvation has already been accomplished and experienced. The verb "to save" includes God's acts of making us, raising us up and seating us with Christ. it describes a rescue from death, wrath and bondage, and a transfer to a new dominion with its manifold blessings. The periphrastic perfect construction in verses 5 and 8 draws attention to the resulting state of salvation.

Through faith, or διὰ πίστεως· or dia pisteos in Greek, is the next phrase to look at in detail. Dia or διὰ is a preposition which indicates the channel through which salvation or faith comes. Faith is NOT viewed as the positive work or accomplishment of the individual, but of God, or θεοῦ. Having the word "God" in the genitive case emphasizes its position before the noun and stands in emphatic contrast to the word ὑμῶν or "you" in the plural. In other words, faith is not something from ourselves, but its origin is in God and his love.

As for the word πίστεως orpisteos, this is a faith which is not some kind of vague trust. Instead, it means "trust, confidence" in people or gods. The word appears 59 times in the LXX and in the New Testament it is used 243 times including 8 times in Ephesians!! In short, one does not work to obtain salvation, but instead we have "trust, reliance or faith." Indeed, we rely on what God accomplished in his Son at the cross 2000 years ago.

Thus faith comes totally as a gift of God. It is given by God, "the gift" τὸ δῶρον, of salvation. Paul is emphatic therefore, that salvation comes totally from God, it is never something we do ourselves.

So is James wrong in the verses quoted by the OP?

"What good is it, my brothers, if someone says he has faith but does not have works? Can that faith save him? [SUP]15 [/SUP]If a brother or sister is poorly clothed and lacking in daily food,[SUP]16 [/SUP]and one of you says to them, “Go in peace, be warmed and filled,” without giving them the things needed for the body, what good is that? [SUP]17 [/SUP]So also faith by itself, if it does not have works, is dead." James 2:14-17

Well, as an epistle which is basically in sermon format, James is certainly preaching to admonish and inspire his congregation, of Jewish Christians, about things which he is seeing in a church which is being persecuted, and people are starving. He is emphasizing what Paul has already said in Eph. 2:1-10!

First, Paul notes in verse 9:

"not a result of works, so that no one may boast." Eph. 2:9

"οὐκ ἐξ ἔργων, ἵνα μή τις καυχήσηται." Eph. 2:9 Greek

This is a very clear verse, it simply and plainly says that our faith, our salvation, is not of works, in order (ina or ἵνα ) that we might not boast. What GOD purposes will result! Accordingly, because salvation cannot be obtained due to some inherent good, or by good works, but only by faith, boasting is excluded.

Verse 9 starts with the word NOT or οὐκ. It continues with the genitive phrase "OF WORKS" (or deeds). The genitive of the source, means "Not out of their works." Does this line up with what James says or not?? We need to continue to verse 10.

"For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand,that we should walk in them." Eph. 2:10 ESV

"αὐτοῦ γάρ ἐσμεν ποίημα, κτισθέντες ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ ἐπὶ ἔργοις ἀγαθοῖς οἷς προητοίμασεν ὁ θεὸς ἵνα ἐν αὐτοῖς περιπατήσωμεν." Eph. 2:10 Greek

Reason: God's workmanship

It becomes apparent that the reason salvation is not from humans or their efforts, but because we are God's workmanship.

i. Statement: God's workmanship -

- the conjunction γάρ or gar, "for" tells us WHY this salvation is not of human origin or human work. The reason is because "we" (recipients of salvation) are "his" (God's) workmanship. The possessive pronoun αὐτοῦ or autou "his" which is placed first in the Greek in this verse, emphasizes once again that it is "God's workmanship."

- The word ποίημα or poiama or workmanship is used only in Romans 1:20, to refer to God's creation. In verse Eph. 2:10, it is used of God's new creation. This refers to the spiritual re-creation in the individual believer's life. God's masterwork is the crafted work of God.

This is where Paul gets very close to James. Good works are God's design for his new creation and flow from his gracious salvation as the consequence of fruit. The New Testament generally, and Paul in particular, consistently urge those who have experienced God's gracious redemption to lead holy lives. A "true and lively" faith is to work itself out in love. Hence the agreement with James 2:18, and Eph. 2:10.

"But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.” Show me your faith apart from your works, and I will show you my faith by my works." James 2:18.

James is not boasting, he is exhorting his congregation to demonstrate the good works which God created us to do beforehand. Thus, it is NOT us performing good deeds to earn salvation, but it is God's will that all those who belong to the new creation should be characterized by a lifestyle which ultimately reflects God's character and action.

"For as the body apart from the spirit is dead, so also faith apart from works is dead." James 2:24

"ὥσπερ γὰρ τὸ σῶμα χωρὶς πνεύματος νεκρόν ἐστιν, οὕτως καὶ ἡ πίστις χωρὶς ἔργων νεκρά ἐστιν." James 2:24

Looking at James 2:24, it appears to contradict Paul in both Eph. 2:1-10 above and the following in Romans:

"For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law." Romans 3:28.

First look to James use of the word "works" in the phrase "οὕτως καὶ ἡ πίστις χωρὶς ἔργων νεκρά ἐστιν, " does not include the word "law" as does Romans 3:28. In other words, is James talking about salvation, or is he concluding the chapter which is actually devoted to exhorting and encouraging the congregation to stop sitting in their metaphorical pews, and being bogus Christian? Without those works which God created for us beforehand, James questions whether they really are Christians in chapter 2.

James is in one accord with Paul's concluding words of this part of Ephesians 2.

"For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand,that we should walk in them." Eph. 2:10

We have been created for a purpose. God's workmanship is different than human works (Eph. 2:9) God's workmanship is different because believers are a new creation in Christ Jesus. "κτισθέντες ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ" - the verb is an aorist passive participle which means "to create." The word points to God's new creation in Christ. And since the participle is passive, it indicates the believer is the recipient of the action, and may also denote the cause. Thus the reason we are God's workmanship is because we are a new creation in Christ.

ii. But what is the purpose of all this??

"that we should walk in them." Eph. 2:10c

The goal of being created in Christ Jesus is for good works. This is exactly what James is declaring in James 2! So God's workmanship is not achieved by good works, but rather it should RESULT is good works as God has purposed them!

Finally, we have to consider that we are God's workmanship, because we were created in Christ Jesus for the goal of good works, that we might walk in them. The word for "walk" in Greek is περιπατήσωμεν or peripatasomen. It is also the verb "to live." Thus as we walk in those good works God prepared before had, we also "live" them.

Next, it is interesting to note that we are NOT "to work in them" but rather "walk in them." God has prepared beforehand good works for believers that he will perform in and through them as they walk by faith in his power. It is not doing a work for God, but God doing a work in and through the believer. Hence, our good works cannot be a cause for boasting, as is also the case with our salvation, because both elements are accomplished by God's grace by means of faith.

Thus, as James and Paul both say, if no good works are evident, it may indicate that the person is not a believer, because what God has purposed in the believer is not being accomplished.

In conclusion, perhaps the most profitable approach is to look at the fact that Paul talks about "works of the law" in Romans 3:28, whereas James talks about "works," in James 2:24. Paul is talking about the Torah, and how keeping it is of no avail to salvation. James is talking about the works, which are not part of salvation.

And while Paul uses "faith," James uses the phrase ἐκ πίστεως μόνον or ek pisteos monon, or "by faith alone." The addition of "alone" shows James refers to the bogus faith that he has been attacking throughout the paragraph. The person "claims" to have faith (v 14) when in fact that faith is dead (vv 17 & 26) and useless (v 20).

The way the word "faith" is used in Romans 3:28 and James 2:24 are very different. Paul teaches that faith is dynamic and powerful force, through which the believer is intimately connected with Christ, his Lord. And since faith is in a Lord, the need for obedience to follow from faith is part of the meaning of the 'word for Paul. Paul speaks therefore of "the obedience of faith" (Romans 5:1) and says that it is "faith working through love" that matters in Christ. (Gal. 5:6)

Once we understand "faith alone" is a neat summary of the bogus faith that James is criticizing, and we can find no reason to expect that Paul would have any quarrel with the claim that "faith alone" does not justify,
 
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The question at hand in James is in verse 14, "can faith save him?" James says no, you need works. Paul says yes, you don't need works.
Paul gave the theology. James gave the what's-that-look-like. They are not saying opposite things. They are the textbook and homework book laying side by side.

You won't do good works without faith. You don't really have faith if you don't act on it.
 

John146

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All missing the point. The question James said is "can faith save him?" Not, do works follow faith. One has to twist the word to make it fit a theology. James is speaking to the twelve tribes of Israel during the great tribulation after the catching up of the saints. During the great trib one has to have faith plus works, enduring to the end of the trib. That's not Church Age doctrine.

If you can't see this then explain the man in 1 Cor. 3 who had the foundation settled (Jesus Christ), but did no works that abide the fire, yet he was saved. No works after the foundation, yet saved. Should we continue on to good works? Absolutely.
 
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All missing the point. The question James said is "can faith save him?" Not, do works follow faith. One has to twist the word to make it fit a theology. James is speaking to the twelve tribes of Israel during the great tribulation after the catching up of the saints. During the great trib one has to have faith plus works, enduring to the end of the trib. That's not Church Age doctrine.

If you can't see this then explain the man in 1 Cor. 3 who had the foundation settled (Jesus Christ), but did no works that abide the fire, yet he was saved. No works after the foundation, yet saved. Should we continue on to good works? Absolutely.
No, I'm not missing it. You're trying to distort it. It's only a game to you.
 

plaintalk

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Jul 20, 2015
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# 241 Dan
“Brethren what shall we do?” And Peter said to them, “ Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, for the forgiveness of your sins and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. For the promise is for you and your children, and all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God shall call to Himself.” (Acts 2: 37- 39)
Dan says, “In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.”
Dan writes with such confidence and certainty that we may be inclined to accept his remarks at face value but we are reminded to test the spirits, not to judge them. Wayne Jackson states that years ago he wrote to F.W. Gingrich, co-translator, along with William Arndt, of the highly-respected Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, asking him Is it grammatically possible that the phrase “for the remission of sins,” in Acts 2:38, expresses the force of both verbs, “repent ye” and “be baptized each one of you,” even though these verbs differ in both person and number? The good professor replied, “Yes. The difference between metanoesate [repent] and baptistheto [be baptized] is simply that in the first instance, the people are viewed together in the plural, while in the second the emphasis is on each individual.” If you would like to read this account, search Acts 2: 38- Wayne Jackson.
According to Professor Gingrich, Dan’s claim regarding Acts 2: 38 is not valid “for the remission of sins” refers to both repentance and baptism. However there is ample evidence in the New Testament, itself, to connect baptism in the name of Christ, in water, with the forgiveness of sins. We will present some of this evidence next. May God bless us all with an open heart and mind.
 

plaintalk

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Jul 20, 2015
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#241 Dan
Is the baptism in the name of Christ, in water, associated with the forgiveness of sins?
The idea that baptism in water is because we have been saved and not in order to be saved is invalid according to Jesus who said, “ He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved. (Mark 16: 15, 16)
The Jews, according to God’s commandments, washed with water for purification and cleansing for centuries. (Ex. 29: 4; Lev.11: 32, 36; 2 Kings 5: 14; Ez.36: 25)
John the Baptist came preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sin, (Mark 1: 4) confirming that in God’s purpose, the two works of faith, baptism and repentance, are both bound up in forgiveness.
The baptism in the name of Jesus, in water, continues this association of baptism and repentance with forgiveness of sin. (Acts 2: 38, 39)
The washing with water (baptism) is specifically stated to remove sin. (Acts 22: 16)
The washing with water (baptism) is for cleansing. (Eph. 5: 26; Heb. 10: 22; 1 Cor. 6: 11; Titus 3: 5)
All spiritual blessings (including forgiveness) are in Christ, (Eph. 1: 3, 7; Col. 1: 14) but we are baptized into Christ. (Rom. 6: 3; Gal. 3: 26, 27)
We are freed from sin when the old self dies, (Rom. 6: 7) this occurs in baptism. (Rom. 6: 3- 6)
We are freed from sin (Rom. 6: 17, 18) when we obey that form of teaching—death—burial—resurrection, this occurs in baptism. (Rom. 6: 3-6)
When we obey Jesus Christ (repentance and baptism), we are sprinkled and washed with the blood of Christ. (1 Peter 1: 2; Heb. 9: 14; 10: 22; Rev. 1: 5; 7: 14)
It is a mistake to disassociate baptism from the forgiveness of sin. The washing with water is a symbol of the washing in the blood of Christ.
God bless.
 
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The question of James 2 is not will works follow faith, but rather, can faith save him? James says you need both to justify salvation, Paul says faith alone. When one does not rightly divide, you try to make both Romans and James fit. In doing so, you have to explain away what James means instead of reading, believing what he said.
Justification to GOD? Or justification to man?
How would you interpret What James and Paul said so that they harmonize?
 
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I get all that you said but still the question at hand in James is "can faith SAVE him?" James says salvation is justified by works and not faith only. How do works justify and to who?
Grace through faith saves.

Faith In the way you are using It,can not save,but since grace was provided,faith alone saves, and we have access to this grace through faith alone In CHRIST alone to the glory of GOD alone.
 

John146

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Jan 13, 2016
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Justification to GOD? Or justification to man?
How would you interpret What James and Paul said so that they harmonize?
Why try and make them harmonize? That has never been successful, ask Martin Luther, he couldn't so he wanted to burn it. Simply rightly divide the word of truth. James is talking to the twelve tribes scattered during the great tribulation in which one would have to have faith and works to save himself through to the millennium. Paul is speaking to you and me, the Church, the body of Christ. To make them harmonize, one has to privately interpret Scripture.

I love the book of James. It has great things in it, but I also know the audience is not the Church. To make twelve tribes mean "Christian Jews," you have to add to the word again. No thank you.
 

John146

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In James 2:21, Abraham was justified by works. Who was he justified to? God? Himself? Isaac?
 

crossnote

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Nov 24, 2012
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In James 2:21, Abraham was justified by works. Who was he justified to? God? Himself? Isaac?
This was when he had offered Isaac his son of promise in obedience to God.
This kind of obedience comes through maturity and learning to trust God regardless.
The foundation of this obedience was Abraham's initial faith when God gave him a promise of land and seed...

Now the LORD said to Abram, "Go from your country and your kindred and your father's house to the land that I will show you. And I will make of you a great nation, and I will bless you and make your name great, so that you will be a blessing. I will bless those who bless you, and him who dishonors you I will curse, and in you all the families of the earth shall be blessed."
(Gen 12:1-3)

and..

And behold, the word of the LORD came to him: "This man shall not be your heir; your very own son shall be your heir." And he brought him outside and said, "Look toward heaven, and number the stars, if you are able to number them." Then he said to him, "So shall your offspring be." And he believed the LORD, and he counted it to him as righteousness.
(Gen 15:4-6)
 
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John146

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Jan 13, 2016
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This was when he had offered Isaac his son of promise in obedience to God.
This kind of obedience comes through maturity and learning to trust God regardless.
The foundation of this obedience was Abraham's initial faith when God gave him a promise of land and seed...

Now the LORD said to Abram, "Go from your country and your kindred and your father's house to the land that I will show you. And I will make of you a great nation, and I will bless you and make your name great, so that you will be a blessing. I will bless those who bless you, and him who dishonors you I will curse, and in you all the families of the earth shall be blessed."
(Gen 12:1-3)

and..

And behold, the word of the LORD came to him: "This man shall not be your heir; your very own son shall be your heir." And he brought him outside and said, "Look toward heaven, and number the stars, if you are able to number them." Then he said to him, "So shall your offspring be." And he believed the LORD, and he counted it to him as righteousness.
(Gen 15:4-6)

Are you saying Abraham's faith was justified before God for his obedience? Justified by works...before who?
 
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In James 2:21, Abraham was justified by works. Who was he justified to? God? Himself? Isaac?
Romans 4:1-2
King James Version(KJV)

1.)What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?

2.)For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before GOD.
 
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It says "as pertaining to the flesh".

If a person has saving faith,they will act on it,and it will be seen by men,and GOD be glorified but GOD does not need to see physical works.
 

crossnote

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Are you saying Abraham's faith was justified before God for his obedience? Justified by works...before who?
Abraham's was justified by faith before God when he believed God. Gen 15:4-6
Abraham's faith was justified (vindicated, proven) by his act of offering his son both to himself, Isaac, the world (as they read his story)and especially to God.
 

crossnote

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Romans 4:1-2
King James Version(KJV)

1.)What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?

2.)For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before GOD.
'not before God' is referring to 'whereof to glory'...he had no room to glory before God.
 
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John 4:23-24
King James Version(KJV)

23.)But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him.

24.)God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.
 

mailmandan

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Apr 7, 2014
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# 241 Dan
“Brethren what shall we do?” And Peter said to them, “ Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, for the forgiveness of your sins and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. For the promise is for you and your children, and all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God shall call to Himself.” (Acts 2: 37- 39)
Acts 2:38 seems to be the pet verse of the church of Christ.

Dan says, “In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.”
Amen! In Acts 10:43 we read ..whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins. These Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 - (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47 - this is referred to as repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.

*So the only logical conclusion when properly harmonizing Scripture with Scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38; 3:19; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31). *Perfect Harmony*

Dan writes with such confidence and certainty that we may be inclined to accept his remarks at face value but we are reminded to test the spirits, not to judge them. Wayne Jackson states that years ago he wrote to F.W. Gingrich, co-translator, along with William Arndt, of the highly-respected Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, asking him Is it grammatically possible that the phrase “for the remission of sins,” in Acts 2:38, expresses the force of both verbs, “repent ye” and “be baptized each one of you,” even though these verbs differ in both person and number? The good professor replied, “Yes. The difference between metanoesate [repent] and baptistheto [be baptized] is simply that in the first instance, the people are viewed together in the plural, while in the second the emphasis is on each individual.” If you would like to read this account, search Acts 2: 38- Wayne Jackson.
I'm already familiar with Wayne Jackson (who attends the church of Christ) and the Christian Courier. Are your posts copied from his articles? Now lets hear from AT Robertson, Daniel Wallace and E Calvin Beisner.

A. T. Robertson comments on Acts 2:38 - "One will decide the use here according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not. My view is decidedly against the idea that Peter, Paul, or any one in the New Testament taught baptism as essential to the remission of sins or the means of securing such remission. So I understand Peter to be urging baptism on each of them who had already turned (repented) and for it to be done in the name of Jesus Christ on the basis of the forgiveness of sins which they had already received." The illustrations of both usages are numerous in the N.T. and the Koin, generally (Robertson, Grammar, page 592).

Daniel Wallace explains in Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics: It is possible that to a first-century Jewish audience (as well as to Peter), the idea of baptism might incorporate both the spiritual reality and the physical symbol (although only the reality remits sins). In other words, when one spoke of baptism, he usually meant both ideas—the reality and the ritual. Peter is shown to make the strong connection between these two in chapters 10 and 11. In 11:15-16 he recounts the conversion of Cornelius and friends, pointing out that at the point of their conversion they were baptized by the Holy Spirit. After he had seen this, he declared, “Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit…” (10:47). The point seems to be that if they have had the internal testimony of the Holy Spirit via spiritual baptism, there ought to be a public testimony/acknowledgment via water baptism as well.

E. Calvin Beisner - In short, the most precise English translation of the relevant clauses, arranging them to reflect the switches in person and number of the verbs, would be, “You (plural) repent for the forgiveness of your (plural) sins, and let each one (singular) of you be baptized (singular)….” Or, to adopt our Southern dialect again, “Y’all repent for the forgiveness of y’all’s sins, and let each one of you be baptized….” When I showed this translation to the late Julius Mantey, one of the foremost Greek grammarians of the twentieth century and co-author of A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament (originally published in 1927), he approved and even signed his name next to it in the margin of my Greek New Testament. These arguments, lexical and grammatical, stand independently. Even if one rejects both lexical meanings of for, he still must face the grammatical argument, and even if he rejects the grammatical conclusion, he still must face the lexical argument. Does Acts 2:38 prove baptismal remission? No, it doesn’t even support it as part of a cumulative case.

According to Professor Gingrich, Dan’s claim regarding Acts 2: 38 is not valid “for the remission of sins” refers to both repentance and baptism. However there is ample evidence in the New Testament, itself, to connect baptism in the name of Christ, in water, with the forgiveness of sins. We will present some of this evidence next. May God bless us all with an open heart and mind.
According to other Greek scholars my claim is valid. It's also in harmony with Acts 3:19; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31). Your claim is not. *Scripture must harmonize with Scripture. *That is the bottom line.