The neo-Gnostic spirit of New.Modern.Hyper Grace

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ladylynn

Guest
A small point Willie-T. We know the words we share here but not the emotional life behind.
You declared you do not follow Jesus's commands. By Johns declaration you do not know Jesus then.

How seriously do you take Johns observation? Is there something you are missing?
Jesus says His way is not a burden. His commands are all about relationships with others and God. They are quite simple, and straight forward, yet you break them. But surely that means you are still in rebellion against the Lord.

Sin is the fruit of thoughts, aspirations, what you are and how you do things. But are these no go areas in your life to God?

Everytime you block His word in your life, you stop Him being able to change you. It is your choice, your submission.

I suspect you will not take kindly to my suggestion and your feeling will be how dare I say anything because .....

Now that is often the escape clause of the sin against the word of God.



I just typed myself happy Peter so I say this with joy in my heart., Willie is a follower of Jesus Christ and all you have to do is read his posts. He exhorts us to follow Jesus in every way (as an older brother in Christ) :rolleyes: Seriously Peter, you can't say Willie doesn't submit and allow God to change him. His wife would kick him out for sure if that were the case.

Seriously, this post of yours is silly. Why would any believer look for an escape clause on how not to follow Jesus? When did Willie block His Word from his life and not allow God to change him? When did he make this choice you say? When did he not submit?? This is just a crazy thing you say here Peter. There is no foundation of any reality to it. What gives? How can you post such a thing?
 
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ladylynn

Guest
Matthew 19:26 But Jesus beheld them, and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible.

Jeremiah 17:5 Thus saith the Lord; Cursed be the man that trusteth in man, and maketh flesh his arm, and whose heart departeth from the Lord.

Jeremiah 17:7 Blessed is the man that trusteth in the Lord, and whose hope the Lord is.


I completely understand what Willie-T is saying. When he relies on himself and his work, he fails. Just like every person.

We aren't perfect yet. We try to abide in Christ and trust in Christ 100% but our natural reaction is to do it ourselves. Our natural reaction is not the spiritual one.



Exactly Grandpa (45? not my Grandpa) :eek: And that is what we are all saying here. We are not sinless perfectionists..... God takes us through the process of mind renewal after we get saved. We have the mind of Christ now and now are able to DO these things BUT... we must go through the unlearning process of how we used to think before that. Put on the mind of Christ... We are still in these bodies and our brains are stamped with old thinking.


It is our JOB to submit to the Holy Spirit as we read HIS Word and are transformed by the renewing of our minds to DO what is right. Put on the mind of Christ. In the process though; we are learning HOW to walk by faith and not by sight. How do humans do this when we are so used to following our natural senses??? Answer; by the renewal of our minds. Walking by faith and not by sight is actually insane to the unsaved mind.

How can we not believe our 5 senses anymore???? We MUST!!! God calls us to live by FAITH and NOT by sight. Do we realize what an endeavor this is?? In the flesh it can't be done because our brains only know one way. Only in the Spirit can we do this. And we are CALLED to do this very thing. And it is a process to put off the old habits and put on the new mind by allowing the Holy Spirit to unfold Christ to us.,. Some are further along than others.
 
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My dear children, I write this to you so that you will not sin.
1 John 2:1

John is clearly stating some simple realities.
1. We are all sinners.
2. Jesus purifies us from sin and we can walk in the light.
3. If we walk in the light we will not sin again
4. If we fail and sin, we have forgiveness through Jesus is we confess our sin.
5. We know we are righteous and walk with Jesus because we keep His commands

Now it cannot be plainer. But hyper-grace wants to deny these words.
The problem with words is either they are true for all believers or they are lies.
There is no caviate to say only for believers who face a certain heresy.
John is simply saying this is the walk of following Jesus.

But if that was so hyper-grace is a lie. So hyper-grace is a lie. End of story.
And that's what John was telling the church in 1 John 5-10. What the apostles had personally learned from walking with Jesus.
And this is the message which we have heard from him and announce to you, that God is light and there [is] no darkness in him at all. If we say that we have fellowship with him and walk in the darkness, we lie and do not practice the truth. But if we walk in the light as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus his Son cleanses us from all sin. If we say that we do not have sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just, so that he will forgive us [our] sins and will cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us. 1 John 1:5-10
 
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A small point Willie-T. We know the words we share here but not the emotional life behind.
You declared you do not follow Jesus's commands. By Johns declaration you do not know Jesus then.

How seriously do you take Johns observation? Is there something you are missing?
Jesus says His way is not a burden. His commands are all about relationships with others and God. They are quite simple, and straight forward, yet you break them. But surely that means you are still in rebellion against the Lord.

Sin is the fruit of thoughts, aspirations, what you are and how you do things. But are these no go areas in your life to God?

Everytime you block His word in your life, you stop Him being able to change you. It is your choice, your submission.

I suspect you will not take kindly to my suggestion and your feeling will be how dare I say anything because .....

Now that is often the escape clause of the sin against the word of God.
Uh.... Pete, don't feel left out. You, yourself, were also very much included in that statement, even if I neglected to say so. Not a single person on the face of this Earth keeps those commandments.......... because we all know that if we fail in one, we fail in all of them

Now, I think you can ask yourself the same things you were asking me.
 

kohelet

Senior Member
Feb 22, 2012
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I could go on, as the sources are plentiful from many different streams of faith.

Your assertion,

"There is absolutely no evidence that John addressed unbelieving gnostics in 1 John 1:5-10. Nothing grammatical, contextual, historical, scriptural, or otherwise. That is an idea invented by Joseph Prince."

. . . along with your OP, is completely false and not based in reality.

-JGIG
Hi everyone,

Way back when, starting at post #1143, JGIG quoted this, by HeRoseFromTheDead:

Originally Posted by HeRoseFromTheDead

That's just more contextual evidence against the notion that John wrote to the gnostics. I think Prince first came up with this idea in his book, Destined to Reign because his whole doctrine falls apart without it. That's why new.modern.hyper grace devotees are so desperate to defend it, even though they can't.

Is Joseph Prince's Radical Grace Teaching Biblical? — Charisma News"Although Prince acknowledges that this passage [1 John 1:9] refutes his teaching on radical grace, he tries to get around it by saying this passage was written to the gnostics in the church—something he states without citing any commentaries, sources or historical evidence".

Nor has anyone here. Nor can they.

Originally Posted by HeRoseFromTheDead

There is absolutely no evidence that John addressed unbelieving gnostics in 1 John 1:5-10. Nothing grammatical, contextual, historical, scriptural, or otherwise. That is an idea invented by Joseph Prince.


Having evidence to support claims is always good, so I read through it all it in the cool of the evening.

JGIG responded to HeRoseFromTheDead's comment about there being "absolutely no evidence" of any kind in her post #1143 with:

"Really?
Here's one:"

providing a link to Intro to 1 John at Biblica, copying and pasting the sections "Recipients" and "Gnosticism". Bear in mind that HeRoseAgainFromTheDead said that there is no evidence that John wrote to Gnostics. JGIG counters this, however, with material that, in the first bit she quoted, agrees with HeRoseAgainFromTheDead: "The fact that it mentions no one by name suggests it was a circular letter sent to Christians in a number of places."

In another section in the Biblica introduction to the epistle, the Outline, the writer makes the point clearer. We see there that 1:5-2:8 is a whole with the heading "The Christian Life as Fellowship with the Father and the Son". It is divided into four sub-sections and addresses Christian readers:
1. Moral likeness (1:5-7)
2. Confession of sin (1:8-2:2)
3. Obedience (2:3-6) and
4. Love for fellow believers.

The remainder of the epistle is also written to Christians, something that we all agree on.

So the "Recipients" section of the intro, which JGIG quotes, says nothing about Gnostics being addressed. In fact, under "Occasion and Purpose" we read: "John's readers were confronted with an early form of Gnostic teaching of the Cerinthian variety...". As I have mentioned in another post, Gnosticism wasn't fully developed until the second century and John wrote his epistles at the end of the first.

JGIG highlights "In addition to that seen in Colossians and in John's letters, acquaintance with early Gnosticism is reflected in 1,2 Timothy, Titus, and 2 Peter and perhaps 1 Corinthians" and "Consequently, John wrote this letter with two basic purposes in mind: (1) to expose false teachers (see 2:26 and note) and (2) to give believers assurance of salvation. In keeping with his intention to combat Gnostic teachers, John specifically struck at their total lack of morality."

Right. The epistle, as this source makes clear, was written to Christians and John combatted Gnostic teachers (he refers to them in 2:18ff. as "antichrists" who "went out from us"). He wasn't combatting Gnostics who were in the church though. There were no longer there.

So JGIG's evidence that Joseph Prince was not saying anything new - in this first Biblica reference at least - isn't evidence at all.

__________


JGIG begins post #1144 the same way, saying:

"Here's another."

And quotes the International Standard Bible Encyclopedia:

"4. 1 John:
In the First Epistle of John there is a distinct polemical purpose. There is no book of the New Testament which is more purposeful in its attack of error. There is "the spirit of error" (1 John 4:6), opposing the Spirit of truth. "Many false prophets are gone out into the world" (1John 2:19); and these false prophets are distinctly named "the antichrist" (1John 2:22) and "the liar" (same place), and "the deceiver and the antichrist" (2John 1:7). This peril, against which the apostle writes, and from which he seeks to defend the church, was Gnosticism, as is proved by what is said again and again in the epistle of the characteristics of this insidious and deadly teaching."

Right. Well, right-ish. This was a rudimentary, early form of Gnosticism, but let's call it Gnosticism for the sake of the argument. There were no Gnostics in the church - they had left. We read this in what JGIG quotes. Again she has not demonstrated that HeRoseFromTheDead is mistaken.

___________


Then comes another post, #1145. Same format, same quoting of HeRoseFromTheDead's posts, and:

"And another."

This time it is Matt Slick's carm.org, and JGIG quotes him thus:

"There is debate whether or not this is a Christian heresy or simply an independent development. The evidence seems to point to the later[sic]. Nevertheless, the Gnostics laid claim to Jesus as a great teacher of theirs and as such requires some attention. It is possible that 1 John was written against some of the errors that Gnosticism promoted."

Right. No one disputes that there was confusion in the church caused by elements Gnostic teaching. What HeRoseFromTheDead is disputing is that there were Gnostics in the church - and we're still waiting for evidence to show that there was. Matt Slick doesn't produce any.

__________


Following hot on the heels of post #1145 comes, not altogether surprisingly, post #1146. Same format and quotes and (dramatic effect?):

"And another:"

This is by the United States Conference of Catholic Bishops. JGIG quotes:

"The purpose of the letter is to combat certain false ideas, especially about Jesus, and to deepen the spiritual and social awareness of the Christian community (1 Jn 3:17). Some former members (1 Jn 2:19) of the community refused to acknowledge Jesus as the Christ (1 Jn 2:22) and denied that he was a true man (1 Jn 4:2). The specific heresy described in this letter cannot be identified exactly, but it is a form of docetism or gnosticism; the former doctrine denied the humanity of Christ to insure that his divinity was untainted, and the latter viewed the appearance of Christ as a mere stepping-stone to higher knowledge of God. These theological errors are rejected by an appeal to the reality and continuity of the apostolic witness to Jesus."

JGIG also quotes the remainder of the paragraph - but none of this has any bearing on what HeRoseFromTheDead wrote in his posts and which she is setting out to debunk. Here too JGIG fails to deliver.

__________

Post #1147 looks the same as the rest.

Here she quotes this from the Biblical Training website:

"Historical Setting

EARLIEST GNOSTIC TENDENCIES

Many writers have concluded that incipient Gnosticism (not identifiable historically until the 2nd cent. a.d.) was in the background of several NT books [...] but esp. 1 John. The most advanced stage of Gnosticism that appeared in the background of the NT was reflected in the writing of 1 John. Gnosticism, a popular form of Graeco-Roman philosophy, had no doubt pervaded the thought of the Rom. empire by a.d. 150 and, confronting Christianity in the latter decades of the 1st cent., had produced serious conflict and confusion within the churches."

The construction of the last sentence has me scratching my head a bit. The writer mentions AD150, which is halfway through the second century, and continues "and, confronting Christianity in the latter decades of the 1st cent...,". But that is earlier than the 2nd. This confusion on my part is due no doubt to my smallness of brain - and doesn't affect the issue anyway.

In what continues (not quoted by JGIG), we read, "Two erroneous conclusions might have been drawn from 1:8-10 against which the author guarded in 2:1,2. The acknowledgement of the persistent malady of sin might lead a Christian to accept sin as inevitable in life, causing him to ease his struggle against sin. Also, the readily available forgiveness of sin might lead a Christian to presume on God as the God of forgiveness."

Let's look at it again. HeRoseFromTheDead wrote:

Originally Posted by HeRoseFromTheDead

There is absolutely no evidence that John addressed unbelieving gnostics in 1 John 1:5-10. Nothing grammatical, contextual, historical, scriptural, or otherwise. That is an idea invented by Joseph Prince.

Chapter 1 of 1 John, says the writer of this website, is written to Christians, not to Gnostics.

Nothing JGIG has presented in these five posts has brought a scintilla of evidence or the remotest suggestion that John address unbelieving gnostics in 1 John 1:5-10. Nothing.

How on earth she can conclude her posts with "Your assertion ... is completely false and not based on reality" when her sources wrote absolutely nothing to support her contention, is beyond me. What is particularly perplexing is that JGIG doesn't strike me as unintelligent. Quite the contrary. So how she can imagine that these scholars are saying the same as Joseph Prince has said is difficult to come to terms with, to say the least.

HeRoseFromTheDead is right. The idea is Joseph Prince's and no New Testament scholars are agreeing with him.
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
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Hi everyone,

Way back when, starting at post #1143, JGIG quoted this, by HeRoseFromTheDead:

[To the reader: click on kohelet's username above for the full text of his quote - it is quite long and since it's just a couple of posts above this one, I chose not to copy the whole thing. Please click or scroll up for context. Thanks.]
At the risk of reviving a thread that may have died a natural death, I will respond to the above.

Here was the issue in question:

Were there Gnostics in the Church that John was writing to? HRFTD posed the issue this way:


Originally Posted by HeRoseFromTheDead

That's just more contextual evidence against the notion that John wrote to the gnostics. I think Prince first came up with this idea in his book, Destined to Reign because his whole doctrine falls apart without it. That's why new.modern.hyper grace devotees are so desperate to defend it, even though they can't.

Is Joseph Prince's Radical Grace Teaching Biblical? — Charisma News"Although Prince acknowledges that this passage [1 John 1:9] refutes his teaching on radical grace, he tries to get around it by saying this passage was written to the gnostics in the church—something he states without citing any commentaries, sources or historical evidence".

Nor has anyone here. Nor can they.

Originally Posted by HeRoseFromTheDead

There is absolutely no evidence that John addressed unbelieving gnostics in 1 John 1:5-10. Nothing grammatical, contextual, historical, scriptural, or otherwise. That is an idea invented by Joseph Prince.


In my posts 1143-1147, I cited several theological sources from different denominational streams that all pondered the influence and presence of Gnostic thought that had crept into the local Body to whom John was writing.

And if there was Gnostic thought influencing the local Body, it is not by any means a stretch to think that there were Gnostic unbelievers in the congregation (just as there are unbelievers of different stripes in congregations today).

In post 1203 I detail why this is a likely scenario.

In post 1234 I attempted to further clarify, as more questions were raised.

Then in post 1242, and using an outside source (that was asked for by HRFTD), I provided more clarification.

The point is that there ARE and HAVE BEEN other teachers that acknowledge the presence of Gnostic thought influencing the congregation to whom John was writing.

I encourage the readers here to click on the links above to sort it all out for themselves.

I'm content for them to make up their own minds about the matter.

Grace and peace to you,
-JGIG
 

kohelet

Senior Member
Feb 22, 2012
349
228
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At the risk of reviving a thread ...
John wrote of the false teachers, "They went out from us but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would have continued with us; but they went out, that it might be plain that they are not of us" (1 Jn. 2:19).

In the subsequent posts JGIG mentions, we read of “likely scenarios” and “saved and unsaved bottoms” and statements such as the one telling us that Gnostics could “absolutely” have been present in the church. JGIG urges us to get practical. But there is nothing speculative about John’s statement. The heretics had left. Read what has been written and quoted and observe the nimble side-stepping around the verse quoted above. We don't know the whereabouts of the Gnostics but are left in no doubt that it's not in the church John is writing to. JGIG has unfortunately provided nothing but surmise and conjecture.

JGIG’s heart is surely in the right place but in her discussion of false teachers she has forced on 1 Jn. 1:9 a false interpretation of her own.



 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
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John wrote of the false teachers, "They went out from us but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would have continued with us; but they went out, that it might be plain that they are not of us" (1 Jn. 2:19).

In the subsequent posts JGIG mentions, we read of “likely scenarios” and “saved and unsaved bottoms” and statements such as the one telling us that Gnostics could “absolutely” have been present in the church. JGIG urges us to get practical. But there is nothing speculative about John’s statement. The heretics had left. Read what has been written and quoted and observe the nimble side-stepping around the verse quoted above. We don't know the whereabouts of the Gnostics but are left in no doubt that it's not in the church John is writing to. JGIG has unfortunately provided nothing but surmise and conjecture.

JGIG’s heart is surely in the right place but in her discussion of false teachers she has forced on 1 Jn. 1:9 a false interpretation of her own.



It's not just my own interpretation in the sense that I'm the only one who reads it that way.

Many of the commentators of the NT include at the very least the possibility that there were false believers (in this case Gnostics) that were part of the congregation to whom John was writing:





-JGIG
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
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It's not just my own interpretation in the sense that I'm the only one who reads it that way.

Many of the commentators of the NT include at the very least the possibility that there were false believers (in this case Gnostics) that were part of the congregation to whom John was writing:

-JGIG
Oops - hit post instead of 'Go Advanced' and needed to tend to something away from the computer - to be continued, ha!
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
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Okay let's try this again :).

John wrote of the false teachers, "They went out from us but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would have continued with us; but they went out, that it might be plain that they are not of us" (1 Jn. 2:19).

In the subsequent posts JGIG mentions, we read of “likely scenarios” and “saved and unsaved bottoms” and statements such as the one telling us that Gnostics could “absolutely” have been present in the church. JGIG urges us to get practical. But there is nothing speculative about John’s statement. The heretics had left. Read what has been written and quoted and observe the nimble side-stepping around the verse quoted above. We don't know the whereabouts of the Gnostics but are left in no doubt that it's not in the church John is writing to. JGIG has unfortunately provided nothing but surmise and conjecture.

JGIG’s heart is surely in the right place but in her discussion of false teachers she has forced on 1 Jn. 1:9 a false interpretation of her own.


It's not just my own interpretation in the sense that I'm the only one who reads it that way.

Many of the commentators of the NT include at the very least the possibility that there were false believers (in this case Gnostics) that were part of the congregation to whom John was writing:

John Gill (23 November 1697 – 14 October 1771), considerably earlier than Joseph Prince, and who writes in worse run-on sentences than I do, wrote this concerning 1 Jn. 2:19:

. . . moreover, such a sense makes the going out to be merely local and corporeal, and which is in itself not criminal; the persons that went from Judea to Antioch were not blamable for going thither, nor for going out from the apostles thither, but for troubling the disciples with words, to the subverting of their souls; nor was a corporeal departure from the apostles any evidence of not being of the same mind with them; for they often departed one from other, yet continued of the same mind, and in the same faith: but the sense is, that there were some persons in the Apostle John's time, who had made a profession of religion, were members of the church, and some of them perhaps preachers, and yet they departed from the faith, and dropped their profession of it, and withdrew themselves from the church, or churches to which they belonged, and set up separate assemblies of their own:

but they were not of us: they were of the church, and of the same mind with it, at least in profession, antecedent to their going out; for had they not been in communion with the church, they could not be properly said to go out of it; and if they had not been of the same mind and faith in profession, they could not be said to depart from it; but they were not truly regenerated by the grace of God, and so apparently were not of the number, of God's elect: notwithstanding their profession and communion with the church, they were of the world, and not of God; they were not true believers; they had not that anointing which abides, and from which persons are truly denominated Christians, or anointed ones:

If this was going on during the Apostle John's time, there was a process happening. It is not unthinkable that there were Gnostics filtering through local bodies - people come and go all the time. It's true now; it was true then.

The Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary, published in 1871, also considerably earlier than Joseph Prince, says this concerning 1 Jn. 2:19:

19. out from us—from our Christian communion. Not necessarily a formal secession or going out: thus Rome has spiritually gone out, though formally still of the Christian Church.

they would … have continued—implying the indefectibility of grace in the elect. "Where God's call is effectual, there will be sure perseverance" [Calvin]. Still, it is no fatal necessity, but a "voluntary necessity" [Didymus], which causes men to remain, or else go from the body of Christ. "We are either among the members, or else among the bad humors. It is of his own will that each is either an Antichrist, or in Christ" [Augustine]. Still God's actings in eternal election harmonize in a way inexplicable to us, with man's free agency and responsibility. It is men's own evil will that chooses the way to hell; it is God's free and sovereign grace that draws any to Himself and to heaven. To God the latter shall ascribe wholly their salvation from first to last: the former shall reproach themselves alone, and not God's decree, with their condemnation (1Jo 3:9; 5:18).

that they were not all of us—This translation would imply that some of the Antichrists are of us! Translate, therefore, "that all (who are for a time among us) are not of us." Compare 1Co 11:19, "There must be heresies among you, that they which are approved may be made manifest among you." For "were" some of the oldest manuscripts read "are." Such occasions test who are, and who are not, the Lord's people.

Matthew Henry (18 October 1662 – 22 June 1714), also considerably earlier than Joseph Prince, wrote this regarding 1 Jn. 2:18-23:

Every man is an antichrist, who denies the Person, or any of the offices of Christ; and in denying the Son, he denies the Father also, and has no part in his favour while he rejects his great salvation. Let this prophecy that seducers would rise in the Christian world, keep us from being seduced. The church knows not well who are its true members, and who are not, but thus true Christians were proved, and rendered more watchful and humble. True Christians are anointed ones; their names expresses this: they are anointed with grace, with gifts and spiritual privileges, by the Holy Spirit of grace. The great and most hurtful lies that the father of lies spreads in the world, usually are falsehoods and errors relating to the person of Christ.

So Matthew Henry recognized that the congregation to whom John was writing might not see who was 'of them' and who wasn't, so he was clarifying to them the Truths of Who Jesus was (defense of Christ's Deity) and also reinforcing the Gospel to them. This does two things: it corrects error that those in the congregation may have been picking up from the Gnostics among them, and it preaches the Gospel (Life) to the Gnostics.

And if John was writing in that way to the congregation, it is not a stretch to think that he did so because he thought there could indeed be Gnostics amongst the congregation.

I stand by my opinion that it is possible that there were Gnostics in the congregation to whom John was writing. That interpretation is neither far-fetched nor is it new.

Again, I'm content to just put all of this out there and to let the reader decide. Agree or disagree, it's between you and God.

-JGIG
 
Sep 4, 2012
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It's not just my own interpretation in the sense that I'm the only one who reads it that way.

Many of the commentators of the NT include at the very least the possibility that there were false believers (in this case Gnostics) that were part of the congregation to whom John was writing:
-JGIG
It's really irrelevant what the exact makeup of the congregation was. John's letter was to a church, or churches, and everything he wrote was teachings from the apostles themselves for the church(es) to follow.
 
Sep 4, 2012
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John wrote of the false teachers, "They went out from us but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would have continued with us; but they went out, that it might be plain that they are not of us" (1 Jn. 2:19).

In the subsequent posts JGIG mentions, we read of “likely scenarios” and “saved and unsaved bottoms” and statements such as the one telling us that Gnostics could “absolutely” have been present in the church. JGIG urges us to get practical. But there is nothing speculative about John’s statement. The heretics had left. Read what has been written and quoted and observe the nimble side-stepping around the verse quoted above. We don't know the whereabouts of the Gnostics but are left in no doubt that it's not in the church John is writing to. JGIG has unfortunately provided nothing but surmise and conjecture.

JGIG’s heart is surely in the right place but in her discussion of false teachers she has forced on 1 Jn. 1:9 a false interpretation of her own.
Speculation is the only thing that hypergrace folks have to support their argument. Theorizing has its place, but it's never good for sound exegesis of scripture.
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
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Speculation is the only thing that hypergrace folks have to support their argument. Theorizing has its place, but it's never good for sound exegesis of scripture.
But your speculation/theorizing that there were no Gnostics in the congregation to whom John was writing is more valid than my speculation that there were.

Alrighty then.

Again, I'm content to let the reader examine the evidence and make their own decision on the matter :).

Grace and peace,
-JGIG
 
Sep 4, 2012
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But your speculation/theorizing that there were no Gnostics in the congregation to whom John was writing is more valid than my speculation that there were.

Alrighty then.

Again, I'm content to let the reader examine the evidence and make their own decision on the matter :).

Grace and peace,
-JGIG
I'm not theorizing that there were no gnostics. Scripture witnesses that they went out from the church, but to avoid the specious reasonings of hypergrace folks that there may have been some still there, I just say that we don't know. And it doesn't matter because John's letter was instructions to the church for it to follow. Simple. That much we do know.
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
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But your speculation/theorizing that there were no Gnostics in the congregation to whom John was writing is more valid than my speculation that there were.

Alrighty then.

Again, I'm content to let the reader examine the evidence and make their own decision on the matter :).

Grace and peace,
-JGIG
I'm not theorizing that there were no gnostics. Scripture witnesses that they went out from the church, but to avoid the specious reasonings of hypergrace folks that there may have been some still there, I just say that we don't know. And it doesn't matter because John's letter was instructions to the church for it to follow. Simple. That much we do know.
And therein lies the rub: Chapter 1 clearly is addressing Gnostic thought, while the balance of the letter is clearly addressing those who are truly in Christ.

Why does it matter?

It matters because it goes to whether or not all of our sins are forgiven or if future sins must be confessed in order to be forgiven.

Was what Jesus did enough? Are believers a forgiven people or do they get their forgiveness in installments?

Specious, eh?

Yeah, we'd hate for the Gospel to be attractive or appealing to a dying world, like it's Good News or something . . . :rolleyes:

-JGIG
 
Sep 4, 2012
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And therein lies the rub: Chapter 1 clearly is addressing Gnostic thought, while the balance of the letter is clearly addressing those who are truly in Christ.
Why does it matter?
It matters because it goes to whether or not all of our sins are forgiven or if future sins must be confessed in order to be forgiven.
Was what Jesus did enough? Are believers a forgiven people or do they get their forgiveness in installments?
Specious, eh?
Yeah, we'd hate for the Gospel to be attractive or appealing to a dying world, like it's Good News or something . . . :rolleyes:
No, chapter 1 is clearly about the communication of the teachings that the apostles learned firsthand from Christ to those in the church who were not present to witness Christ personally. Those apostolic teachings directly confront the error of the 'gnostic' teachings introduced by those whom John says left the church.
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
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No, chapter 1 is clearly about the communication of the teachings that the apostles learned firsthand from Christ to those in the church who were not present to witness Christ personally. Those apostolic teachings directly confront the error of the 'gnostic' teachings introduced by those whom John says left the church.
That's your interpretation and you're entitled to it. You also believe that sins committed by believers must be confessed to be forgiven and that God 'has His limits' - that someone can sin themselves out of salvation.

In a nutshell, this is what happened at the Cross:


Has God dealt with the sins of the world?

Yes.

How many times did He deal with it?

Once.

Have your sins been judged?

Yes.

Where were they judged?

At the Cross.

What was the verdict?

Guilty.

What was the punishment?

Death.

Who took it?

Jesus.

How much of it?

All of it.

How much is left for you?

None.

~ Bob George

If you are in Christ, there is no more punishment for sin - that was dealt with at the CROSS.
Source:



1 John 4 gets to the heart of the matter:


13 By this we know that we abide in him and he in us, because he has given us of his Spirit. 14 And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world. 15 Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God, God abides in him, and he in God. 16 So we have come to know and to believe the love that God has for us. God is love, and whoever abides in love abides in God, and God abides in him.

17 By this is love perfected with us, so that we may have confidence for the day of judgment, because as he is so also are we in this world. 18 There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear. For fear has to do with punishment, and whoever fears has not been perfected in love.

And John wrote elsewhere:


24
Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life. He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life. (from John 5)


-JGIG
 
Sep 4, 2012
14,424
692
113
.
You're simply trying to patch together a defense of your gnostic theory by quoting completely unrelated ideas and verses. It's a non-sequitur fallacy.

That's your interpretation and you're entitled to it. You also believe that sins committed by believers must be confessed to be forgiven and that God 'has His limits' - that someone can sin themselves out of salvation.

In a nutshell, this is what happened at the Cross:


Has God dealt with the sins of the world?

Yes.

How many times did He deal with it?

Once.

Have your sins been judged?

Yes.

Where were they judged?

At the Cross.

What was the verdict?

Guilty.

What was the punishment?

Death.

Who took it?

Jesus.

How much of it?

All of it.

How much is left for you?

None.

~ Bob George

If you are in Christ, there is no more punishment for sin - that was dealt with at the CROSS.
Source:



1 John 4 gets to the heart of the matter:


13 By this we know that we abide in him and he in us, because he has given us of his Spirit. 14 And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world. 15 Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God, God abides in him, and he in God. 16 So we have come to know and to believe the love that God has for us. God is love, and whoever abides in love abides in God, and God abides in him.

17 By this is love perfected with us, so that we may have confidence for the day of judgment, because as he is so also are we in this world. 18 There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear. For fear has to do with punishment, and whoever fears has not been perfected in love.

And John wrote elsewhere:


24
Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life. He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life. (from John 5)


-JGIG
 
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