Why the king james?

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Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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it's beyond your comprehension even though it's as simple as simple can be.
Really? Are you still insulting people who don't agree with you?

What I have seen consistently from the KJV defenders in this thread is silly arguments, unsupported assertions, and dodging of challenges, served up with a hin of arrogance and a bath of slander.

Where is the fruit of the Spirit?
 

kohelet

Senior Member
Feb 22, 2012
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No problem brother, I was just responding to the question, What does the non-English-speaking world without a KJV in their various languages do? How would God's pure words have been preserved for their generations?

I was merely asking what would non-Greek speakers do if we did have the originals? Would they be forced to learn Greek?
Oh, okay John146, thanks. No, having the originals wouldn't remove the need for translations and God would preserve his word also in languages other than English.
 
T

Txroads

Guest
Maybe this is too simple... But.... I always thought that it was called the living word... The word of God speaks to each one of us because God has something different to say to each one of us that He wants us to know.. And He knows just how to say it so we can understand it. The different versions may not specifically say things the exact same way, but do they really take anything away from what the very essence of the Bible is... God the father.... Jesus... And the Holy Spirit?
 
C

Complete_In_Him

Guest
The different versions may not specifically say things the exact same way, but do they really take anything away from what the very essence of the Bible is... God the father.... Jesus... And the Holy Spirit?
Yes they do, and the doctrines of God. Scripture is meant to connect doctrines. But, through the use of multi-translations words are added or simply taken away, destroying the pattern of comparing spiritual things with spiritual things.

Take the importance of the decree "this day have I begotten thee" a resurrection truth. When was the Son "begotten" by the Father, it was from the dead. There is no other record given to this word and testimony in the bible, but Revelation 1:5 kjv
 
Nov 25, 2014
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However, it was still interpreted, and accepted universally to mean full immersion up until the 1620's or so... about the time the KJV came into full acceptance. The RCC apparently decided that sprinkling or pouring was acceptable about that time. Before that, it was immersion only, apparently.
This is also false. Using infusion (pouring) for baptism goes back to the Apostolic age.


The Didache was written around A.D. 70 and, though not inspired, is a strong witness to the sacramental practice of Christians in the apostolic age. In its seventh chapter, the Didache reads, "Concerning baptism, baptize in this manner: Having said all these things beforehand, baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit in living water [that is, in running water, as in a river]. If there is no living water, baptize in other water; and, if you are not able to use cold water, use warm. If you have neither, pour water three times upon the head in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit." These instructions were composed either while some of the apostles and disciples were still alive or during the next generation of Christians, and they represent an already established custom.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

God bless!
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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And would be the authority to say this word is right, but this word is not right....man. Puny man would be the authority on what God had said. I don't trust the KJV because of the godly men who translated it...I trust it, because God promised to preserve His pure words for all generations. When you look at the evidence between manuscripts, it should be clear. Antioch or Alexandria?

That's why we have the manuscripts.....those are what He gave us..the KJV was good for it's day and it is still ok for today as long as you study other translations and check the words in it...
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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The context of the whole book of Hosea would suggest that this is the best way to translate this Hebrew phrase is exactly as the King James Bible (and some others) has it - "who love flagons of wine".

Hosea 2:8 "For she did not know that I gave her corn, and WINE, and oil, and multiplied her silver and gold, which they prepared for Baal."

Hosea 4:11 "Whoredom and WINE AND NEW WINE take away the heart."

Hosea 7:5 "In the day of our king the princes have made him sick with BOTTLES OF WINE; he stretched out his hand with scorners."

Hosea 7:14 "And they have not cried unto me with their heart, when they howled upon their beds: they assemble themselves for corn and WINE, and they rebel against me."

Hosea 9:2 and 4 - "The floor and the WINEPRESS shall not feed them, and THE NEW WINE shall fail in her...They shall not offer WINE offerings to the LORD, neither shall they be pleasing unto him."




And I have another one that goes unanswered.......

New American Standard Bible
Then the LORD said to me, "Go again, love a woman who is loved by her husband, yet an adulteress, even as the LORD loves the sons of Israel, though they turn to other gods and love raisin cakes(ashishah)."

King James Bible
Then said the LORD unto me, Go yet, love a woman beloved of herfriend, yet an adulteress, according to the love of the LORD toward the children of Israel, who look to other gods, and love flagons(ashishah) of wine.

ashishah: a raisin cake
Original Word: אֲשִׁישֵׁי
Part of Speech: Noun Feminine
Transliteration: ashishah

Phonetic Spelling: (ash-ee-shaw')
Short Definition: cakes
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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Without Scripture you cannot do this...Scripture is the pure words of God.

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

God bless!
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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It sure is nice to know that what I'm reading, I can trust every word to be true. What a blessing! What a relief! I couldn't imagine reading a Bible and not having 100% confidence in it.


There is no reaching these KJV only folks...its like a cult :(
 
Nov 23, 2013
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OK, so i know my question about Proverbs 30:28 was buried by a lot of "rawr rawr rawr"

but since you feel this way, can you show me some evidence that the correct translation in that verse is "spider" (KJV) instead of "lizard" (every modern English translation)?

because i like spiders better than lizards, but obviously (as i'm sure you agree) the truth is more important than what i "like"

and by "evidence" i mean more than "the KJV says lizards so it has to be lizards" -- show me some proof of the correct meaning of the word "שְׂמָמִית"

please?
There are 4 small extremely wise things on the earth - ants, conies, locusts and spiders.
Ants are not strong but they're smart enough to gather all the food they need in the summer.
Conies are feeble and can't defend themselves so they make their houses in the safety of the rocks.
Locusts have no leader yet they are wise enough to stick together as if they had a leader.
Spiders work their hands yet they live in kings palaces.

Notice every verse in the KJV is about the abilities of the creature and it's wisdom. The same is true also in the NASB except for verse 28... the pattern disappears here. It goes from a spider grasping with her hands to someone grasping a lizard with their hands. Just guessing here but the NASB translators tried to interpret scripture here instead of just translating it.... I don't think they knew that spiders really do have hands.

Proverbs 30:28New American Standard Bible (NASB)

28 The lizard you may grasp with the hands,
Yet it is in kings’ palaces.

 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
There is absolutely NO DIFFERENCE between "agape" and "phileo" and BOTH are used interchangeably by Jesus Christ and the writers of the New Testament. REGARDLESS of what Greek grammars, Greek teachers and Greek preachers may say! The Greek game once again...

Maybe Jesus asked him three times because earlier, Peter denied Him three times.

There is, however, a difference in the love of 1 Corinthians 13 which is charity. Thus the different term.
rolls eyes..

There is a huge difference.

one means a brotherly type love the other is a more intimate sacrificial love.

why do you resist? This is again why people treat this heresy the way it does, You demand proof and when given, ignore it..
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest

OK, so i know my question about Proverbs 30:28 was buried by a lot of "rawr rawr rawr"

but since you feel this way, can you show me some evidence that the correct translation in that verse is "spider" (KJV) instead of "lizard" (every modern English translation)?

because i like spiders better than lizards, but obviously (as i'm sure you agree) the truth is more important than what i "like"

and by "evidence" i mean more than "the KJV says lizards so it has to be lizards" -- show me some proof of the correct meaning of the word "שְׂמָמִית"

please?

hmm,, reminds me of the commercial where the talking gecko tries to sell insurance from gieco insurance.. They kept confusing him for gieco.. now I guess the KJV interprets him as a spider?? (my NKJV has spider also with a side note that says lizard.. I was like WHAT????. thanks for bringing that up)
 
Nov 22, 2015
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I agree in a sense...but the reality is that "begotten" in John 1:18 is a completely different greek word then in Rev 1:5 KJV...

In Rev 1:5..Jesus was the "firstborn" from the dead.......the "begotten" part means that Jesus was unique and completely only-begotten from the Father.

Altho these 2 terms are closely related..they are talking about different aspects of Jesus...one from the Father being only begotten...the Rev1:5 He was the first born from the dead..and we are his fruit as we too follow in His being brought back from being dead...

Only, unique, only-begotten
Complete Biblical Library Greek-English Dictionary, The - The Complete Biblical Library Greek-English Dictionary – Lambda-Omicron.

Yes they do, and the doctrines of God. Scripture is meant to connect doctrines. But, through the use of multi-translations words are added or simply taken away, destroying the pattern of comparing spiritual things with spiritual things.

Take the importance of the decree "this day have I begotten thee" a resurrection truth. When was the Son "begotten" by the Father, it was from the dead. There is no other record given to this word and testimony in the bible, but Revelation 1:5 kjv
 
Nov 22, 2015
20,436
1,431
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This whole topic about the KJV being "the only word of God as a translation" is ludicrous....my goodness..I can't even believe it exists...*shakes head*...anyway have fun debating over nothing....:cool:
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Its 6025 not 625, which is gathering or collection.

And 809 means something pressed together?

809~~~ashishah: a raisin cake
Original Word: אֲשִׁישֵׁי
Part of Speech: Noun Feminine
Transliteration: ashishah
Phonetic Spelling: (ash-ee-shaw')
Short Definition: cakesNAS Exhaustive Concordance
Word Origin
from ashash
Definition
a raisin cake
NASB Translation
cakes (1), raisin cake (1), raisin cakes (2), raisin* (1), raisins (1).
E-sword Strongs says:

H6025 - From an unused root probably meaning to bear fruit; a grape: - (ripe) grape, wine.
H809 - Feminine of H08; something closely pressed together, that is a cake of raisins or other comfits: - flagon.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Really? Are you still insulting people who don't agree with you?

What I have seen consistently from the KJV defenders in this thread is silly arguments, unsupported assertions, and dodging of challenges, served up with a hin of arrogance and a bath of slander.

Where is the fruit of the Spirit?
I'm not as perfect as you are.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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This whole topic about the KJV being "the only word of God as a translation" is ludicrous....my goodness..I can't even believe it exists...*shakes head*...anyway have fun debating over nothing....:cool:
Here's why we debate it. There are two different rocks, two different vines and two different wines. The newer translations are not the vine of Christ but some people can't see this and push them as though they were the same as vine of Christ.

Deuteronomy 32:31-33 KJV
For their rock is not as our Rock, even our enemies themselves being judges.
[32] For their vine is of the vine of Sodom, and of the fields of Gomorrah: their grapes are grapes of gall, their clusters are bitter:
[33] Their wine is the poison of dragons, and the cruel venom of asps.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,176
3,700
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If we have access to the word of God wouldn't you want it? Wouldn't you hold it precious above all other books? Would you want someone changing it, adding to it, degrading it, watering it down? I would hope not. I would hope you would defend it to the very end.


This whole topic about the KJV being "the only word of God as a translation" is ludicrous....my goodness..I can't even believe it exists...*shakes head*...anyway have fun debating over nothing....:cool:
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,176
3,700
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God said about His word, that it is truth. I need His word of truth, His sword, to defend myself against this world. If it's not 100% truth, it's just another good book like many others. All of it must be true or it can't be trustworthy. Please tell me, if the KJV is not the word of God, point me to what you think is. The Greek manuscripts? NASB? NIV? ESV?


This whole topic about the KJV being "the only word of God as a translation" is ludicrous....my goodness..I can't even believe it exists...*shakes head*...anyway have fun debating over nothing....:cool: