You really are mixed up, aren't you? Besides abducting this whole thread, I mean!
"But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law,5 to redeem those who were under the law, so that we might receive adoption as sons.6 And because you are sons, God has sent the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, crying, “Abba! Father!”7 So you are no longer a slave, but a son, and if a son, then an heir through God." Gal. 4:4-7
The fullness of time was when Jesus came. There are many reasons for this.
1. There was a common language throughout the known word - Greek (lingua franca). Alexander the Great started this in the 3rd century BC, with his "hellenization" of the world. Even the Jews mostly lost their Hebrew, which is why the OT had to be translated from Hebrew into Greek, called the Septuagint. Oh yes, it was claimed that Greek translation was totally inspired, and the only Word of God. Except there are many differences between the Greek translation and the original Hebrew. But fortunately, most of the Jews knew where these differences were, and were careful with which version they used. A politically unified realm preserved a linguistically unified people.
Anyway, the point of having Greek was that the gospel was easily spread, because everyone spoke Greek, at least as a second language.
2. Pax Romana (Roman Peace) gave the heart of the empire freedom from warfare over an expanse of time and space previously unparalleld in Middle Eastern history. The roads and sea ways were safe, due to the Roman government chasing bandits and pirates away. Anyone breaking the laws were immediately executed, no questions asked! So it was a safe place to travel and to spread the gospel.
3. A direct outgrowth of the first two points was the development of the most advanced transportation and communication systems of the ancient world, never again matched till the Reformation.
4. A cosmopolitan spirit grew, particular in cities, which transcended national barriers. Old tribal distinctions or identities were breaking down, leaving people ripe for new religions or ideologies to fill the gap. The gospe would meet many felt needs in this climate.
5. Closely related was the elimination of many cross-cultural battlers to dialogue and the dissemination of new world views because of the cultural and political unification that was increasing.
6. As long as Christianity was viewed as just another Jewish sect, it received protection as a religio licitia. Throughout the book of Acts, all of which was completed by 62AD (before Nero's persecution) Romans rulers consistently came to the rescue of Christians, particularly Paul. Only by the decade of the 60's was it clear to all that Christianity was significant to transcending its Jewish roots and becoming a major world religions, at which point it was no longer granted the legal status it previously ignored.
7. Rome implemented the most enlightened and advanced judicial processes of antiqiuity. Although there were tyrants and de sports, due process of the law brought justice for at least Roman citizens. Jesus was not a citizen, but Paul was, and he repeatedly received the legal benefits of his citizenship. ( Acts 16:35-39; 22:23-29; 25:10-11)
Little wonder that many Christian historians are not only seen a theological but a historical application to Gal. 4:4 "When the fullness of time was come, God sent forth his Son." KJV
Nothing about the KJV being the "fullness of time" and in fact, that scripture points to Christ and how the world was ready to hear the gospel.
Which begs the question - Have you ever actually read the Bible? Because I think that would really help dispel all your misconceptions. No wait, you probably have read it, but didn't understand it because it was written in 15th century English. So where did you get this magical thinking that the KJV was referred to in Gal. 4:4 when even the KJV says the fullness of time was when God sent forth his Son? Or where did you get the false idea that the KJV was the only translation God used and blessed? And why are you so Anglo-centric? How can you eliminate the histories, languages and cultures of billions of people and millennia, in believing that only your arachic Early Modern English translation of the Bible is sanctioned by God?