"Takes out"... according to what standard? The KJV? That's circular reasoning. If you're trying to prove the KJV as accurate, you may not use the KJV as the standard against which others are compared. If all you are doing is saying that, in reference to the KJV, the ESV does not have all these words, your assertions have no value, because the root of the issue is the accuracy of Scripture (in my usage, "Scripture" does not equal the KJV exclusively).
If AND ONLY IF you are comparing both the KJV and the ESV with an objective standard can these charges of "taking out" possibly be valid. There is an objective standard: the manuscript evidence as a whole. Your argument fails... again.
If AND ONLY IF you are comparing both the KJV and the ESV with an objective standard can these charges of "taking out" possibly be valid. There is an objective standard: the manuscript evidence as a whole. Your argument fails... again.
They must prove that the KJV reading is the right one, not that it has more verses or different words.