Which Bible?

[LaurenTM]

Makes the gospel difficult to understand? Nope on that.

1 Corinthians 15:3-4
3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

You can't get easier than that. How Christ died for our sins, He was buried, and He rose again. That's the gospel. How is that difficult to understand?

Actually, the new versions like the ever changing ESV are in error for Christ was not raised but He rose.

3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received: that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the Scriptures, 4 that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day in accordance with the Scriptures,
Christ had the power to overcome death.Nice try Mr. Wallace. Btw, how are we doing since all these new versions have come out? The church has been weakened in disbelief and no real revivals are happening. They have welcomed in the age of Laodicea.

so everyone but KJ cultists live in Laodicea?

I guess it will be you guys at the pearly gates and not Peter...Catholics will not be amused

 

[LaurenTM]

It's odd that the KJVO crowd hasn't been around answering the "error" thing yet...

they can't find their oxygen masks I guess

 

[KJV1611]

This is not circular reasoning. Hornetguy is merely comparing the KJV to the Greek, which is a higher authority.

By the way, this IS the line of reasoning often used by KJVO proponents... that the modern English translations are wrong because they don't agree perfectly with the KJV. That is inconsistent and intellectually dishonest.

You know those aren't the originals writers, they're only copies and there are two contradictory lines of manuscripts. How can anyone say a mixture of corrupt texts with good texts has higher authority than the KJV.

 

[KJV1611]

I'm saying for the third time now, please provide objective evidence to support your assertion that the KJV is inspired as the original autographs were inspired. Failure to provide evidence will only lead me to conclude that you are unable to do so and that your assertion should be withdrawn.

Man is not capable of translating an inerrant bible without inspiration of God. The KJV is inerrant - God translated it.

 

[mpaper345]

I did not check out the other versions,but I have read through the KJV Bible,and it is the same theme throughout it,which is what matters.

Which the Old and New collaborate together,and are a witness of each other.

 

[Tintin]

I did not check out the other versions,but I have read through the KJV Bible,and it is the same theme throughout it,which is what matters.

Which the Old and New collaborate together,and are a witness of each other.

Uh. I think you'll find that's the case with all truthful translations.

 

[LaurenTM]

[FONT=&quot]TRANSLATION ERROR[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] [/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]“Ghost” is a mistranslation of the Greek word “pneuma” which means breath or spirit. The KJV inconsistently translated the word pneuma as spirit or ghost, with 91 instances of Ghost or ghost referring to God. The word “Ghost” with reference to God, which is used in all English Bibles predating the King James Version, can be traced to the Wycliffe translation (1395). Although the Wycliffe Bible was translated from the Latin Vulgate, Jerome used the Latin term “Spirtu Sancto” for the Holy Spirit and “spiritum” for Jesus’ spirit. Wycliffe did not actually translate the Bible that bears his name; it was translated by other Lollard scholars at Oxford University while Wycliffe led the Lollard movement politically. (See: Chap. 19 “The Lollards: John Wycliffe”) These scholars would have been familiar with the famous Old English (Anglo-Saxon) epic poem Beowulf, which was based on a Germanic oral tradition; they would therefore have known that the Old English word gást and gaést from the Gothic word usgaisjan were used in the poem to describe monsters, i.e., dragons and devils. The Wycliffe/Lollard translation of Eph. 6:17 is most inappropriate and disturbing: “And take ye the helm of helthe, and the swerd of the Goost, that is, the word of God. That the Lollard scholars were “knights” is evident in their use of the word “knyyt” or “knyytis” 92 times in their translation, e.g., 2 Tim. 2:3: “Trauele thou as a good knyyt of Crist Jhesu.”[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]


ooops.......[/FONT]

 

[Dino246]

Man is not capable of translating an inerrant bible without inspiration of God. The KJV is inerrant - God translated it.

This response is a complete fail. I conclude that your assertion is completely devoid of evidentiary or logical support.

 

[KJV1611]

I did not check out the other versions,but I have read through the KJV Bible,and it is the same theme throughout it,which is what matters.

Which the Old and New collaborate together,and are a witness of each other.

I agree. Also I have read the other translations (NIV NASB) and they have a different theme than the KJV. The straw that broke the camels back for me was referring to Jesus as a son of the gods and Jesus having a beginning.

 

[Tintin]

KJV-Onlyists be like: ghjksfsdkjghfgjhfdgjdfghdrjsghrdvibguirhfhrfdhkgrdjhrrjkgjhkr

 

[KJV1611]

This response is a complete fail. I conclude that your assertion is completely devoid of evidentiary or logical support.

If you think that a group of men can translate God's word with no errors then there's no point in us having a discussion about it.

 

[LaurenTM]

do you believe that other translations are inspired by satan?

 

[fredoheaven]

Let me give a simple documentation what I am saying in this chat forum where one is trying to suggest that I was “wrong” when I said there’s none yet a pure, preserved, given by inspiration. Infallible words of God in Filipino, Tagalog or my dialect Pangasinense/Pangasinan Bible. I have picture of a Bible in Pangasinan translation. It so happen still checking my old Pangasinan Version in my book shelf but I think this will suffice. To imply I need to study from them is worst one can imagine. I know, this version I am talking about contains the words of God, I can deal salvation with it. However, it is not PURE as I am saying. Why? Even because it has it omissions, alterations, corruptions etc. Let me give just an idea? In our native language/dialect, our alphabet has no letter C, letter C= letter K. That alone will give some fresh idea that reading Christ= in tagalog, Kristo, in Pangasinan dialect = “Kristo”

I hope to include the photo picture of its front, including the Foreword of this Pangasinan Popular Version which BEC believes and I quote:

“First, the Bible give us the first model of the BEC like the primitive Jerusalem community in Acts 2:42-44;Acts 4:32-35. The characteristics of this community are faithfulness to the doctrine of Jesus as taught by the Apostles, firm belief in prayer, breaking of bread in their homes (celebrating the Eucaharist)…
Second, the Bible is the best “catechetical” book and after repentance, Jesus stressed “belief” in the gospel…BEC faith is holistic…Holistic Christian formation.”

Signed by Most Rev. Artur M. Bastes, SVD,. DD
Bishop of Sorsogon
Chairman: Episcopal Commission for the Biblical Apostolate (ECBA)
Catholic Bishops Conference of the Philippines (CBCP)

So this is you wanted me to study? As they say it, “All leads to Rome”? Hoho, I am a former “Roman” catholic as the Philippines are predominantly RC because of the Spanish Encomendero.

No way, believe me, I would rather stick to your English language this time of using the KJV for my growth as a Bible Believer.



God bless

Note: Pasting Pics did'nt work here.

 

[KJV1611]

TRANSLATION ERROR

“Ghost” is a mistranslation of the Greek word “pneuma” which means breath or spirit. The KJV inconsistently translated the word pneuma as spirit or ghost, with 91 instances of Ghost or ghost referring to God. The word “Ghost” with reference to God, which is used in all English Bibles predating the King James Version, can be traced to the Wycliffe translation (1395). Although the Wycliffe Bible was translated from the Latin Vulgate, Jerome used the Latin term “Spirtu Sancto” for the Holy Spirit and “spiritum” for Jesus’ spirit. Wycliffe did not actually translate the Bible that bears his name; it was translated by other Lollard scholars at Oxford University while Wycliffe led the Lollard movement politically. (See: Chap. 19 “The Lollards: John Wycliffe”) These scholars would have been familiar with the famous Old English (Anglo-Saxon) epic poem Beowulf, which was based on a Germanic oral tradition; they would therefore have known that the Old English word gást and gaést from the Gothic wordusgaisjan were used in the poem to describe monsters, i.e., dragons and devils. The Wycliffe/Lollard translation of Eph. 6:17 is most inappropriate and disturbing: “And take ye the helm of helthe, and the swerd of the Goost, that is, the word of God. That the Lollard scholars were “knights” is evident in their use of the word “knyyt” or “knyytis” 92 times in their translation, e.g., 2 Tim. 2:3: “Trauele thou as a good knyyt of Crist Jhesu.”



ooops.......

Maybe the word ghost offends you but ghost means "breath or spirit".

ghost (n.) Old English gast "breath; good or bad spirit, angel, demon; person, man, human being," in Biblical use "soul, spirit, life," from Proto-Germanic *gaistaz (source also of Old Saxon gest, Old Frisian jest, Middle Dutch gheest, Dutch geest, German Geist "spirit, ghost"). This is conjectured to be from a PIE root *gheis-, used in forming words involving the notions of excitement, amazement, or fear (source also of Sanskrit hedah "wrath;" Avestan zaesha- "horrible, frightful;" Gothic usgaisjan, Old English gæstan "to frighten").

 

[LaurenTM]

Maybe the word ghost offends you but ghost means "breath or spirit".

ghost (n.) Old English gast "breath; good or bad spirit, angel, demon; person, man, human being," in Biblical use "soul, spirit, life," from Proto-Germanic *gaistaz (source also of Old Saxon gest, Old Frisian jest, Middle Dutch gheest, Dutch geest, German Geist "spirit, ghost"). This is conjectured to be from a PIE root *gheis-, used in forming words involving the notions of excitement, amazement, or fear (source also of Sanskrit hedah "wrath;" Avestan zaesha- "horrible, frightful;" Gothic usgaisjan, Old English gæstan "to frighten").

the mistranslation is what is glaring

it is your obvious lack of admitting it that I find offensive

you are not being honest

 

[LaurenTM]

do you believe that other translations are inspired by satan?

waiting..................

 

[KJV1611]

do you believe that other translations are inspired by satan?

Yes I think they're inspired by Satan under the direction of God. I've already covered this in a another post on this thread. God sends false prophets with false prophecies to people who reject His prophets. Go read 1 Kings 22.

 

[KJV1611]

the mistranslation is what is glaring

it is your obvious lack of admitting it that I find offensive

you are not being honest

It's not lack of admittance because it's not a mistranslation, I know why Holy Ghost was used 90 times instead of Holy Spirit which is used 7 times. The reason for the ghost translation is right there in front of your face and sadly you can't see it. It is also proof (which you can not see either) that the bible is inspired by God... No ifs, and or buts.

 

[fredoheaven]

Hi Fred,

It is a particularly difficult scripture.

The Jews call non-Jews 'Goyim' meaning the Nations.

The world is viewed as the Holy Nation, and the other Nations, in this worldview.

The Gentiles means the same thing, Nations. So for instance, Luke 2:32


A light to lighten the Gentiles, and the glory of thy people Israel.


Gentiles here is the translation of 'ethnos'.


Hellen simply means Greek.

Hi,

Now not really going to a Greek this time but examining the NRSV why it is Greek and not Gentile.

1. I ask before why Greek? when you said in Jewish thought, there are only two classes of people either a Jew and Gentile. So in by your saying, is it not a proper translation is not Greek but Gentile?

2. In the NRSV, says “There will be anguish and distress for everyone who does evil…”, I asked, Is doing evil for the Jew and the Greeks only? If so are some Gentile nation excluded in doing evil?

3. It further says “glory and honor and peace for everyone who does good”, the Jew first and also the Greek” the same manner, is doing good to the to the Jews and Greeks only?

4. Does “everyone” refers to the living Jews and greeks only? Is not the judgment for all the people since we know it that “ALL” have sinned? Parralell to the judgment Is not during the judgment by flood covers only a certain place? Or the coverage is the whole world

God bless

 

[Oncefallen]

Yes I think they're inspired by Satan under the direction of God. I've already covered this in a another post on this thread. God sends false prophets with false prophecies to people who reject His prophets. Go read 1 Kings 22.

Help me out here because I don't want to put words in your mouth. It appears that you are implying that persons who don't use the KJV in some way are rejecting God's truth.