Originally Posted by
DiscipleDave
Scriptures plainly teach that Husband shall rule over the wife.
Gen_3:16 Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he (HUSBAND)
shall rule over thee (WIFE).
I read this passage as a foretelling, not a command. It simply doesn't make sense to me as a command. Again, why would God, Who is good and wise, assign sinful males to "rule over" females? Does it not make more sense that God was foretelling what simply "would" happen, not what "should" happen?
Scriptures makes since, what people thinks distorts Scriptures. Ask all True Christian wives who knows their husband rules over them, and that obey their husbands, if it is a command or not a command. Eve sure felt it was a command. And it lasted all the way to Abraham and his wife Sarah, who called her husband "LORD". Throughout all of History, husbands were the head of the house, and wives were to obey their husbands. It is only during the last days were women think they are equal to men and therefore, now the tables have been turned and women have become the head of the house, and men servants to their wives (Especially in America, the Great Babylon)
Originally Posted by
DiscipleDave
And Scriptures plainly reveals that it is important who was formed first, consider:
1Ti 2:12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. (God seems to think it pretty important to mention it in His Word)
And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
Yes, and this passage makes great sense if Paul is refuting a proto-Gnostic heresy. It is awkward otherwise.
Does it matter what you or i think of the verse, does not Change the TRUTH of it in the slightest. Tell me, when the Holy Ghost inspired to write this, do you think the Holy Spirit KNEW that this would not apply to people 2000 years from now, and should not be said? Or do you think the Holy Spirit knew exactly what to say and it would apply all the way up till the time of Jesus Return?
Originally Posted by
DiscipleDave
... Eph 5:22 Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body. Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in EVERY THING.
Can you explain what the bolded words mean in the next Holy Inspired by God verse?
Tit 2:5 To be discreet, chaste, keepers at home, good, OBEDIENT to their own husbands, that the word of God be not blasphemed.
Doesn't Obedient mean to OBEY? Aren't the aged women, according to God (the Word), suppose to be teaching the wives to be OBEDIENT to their own husbands? Not in America for sure. Get stoned if you do, in a country where the women have become men, and the men have become obedient to their wives.
Taking one English translation of a word which is translated in several different ways and arguing that it means what you want it to mean is disingenuous. "Subject" and "submit" are far more common selections for the word translated "obedient" above.
So what you are basically saying is that the word OBEDIENT does not mean OBEDIENT? But you say it means something else, is that right? WOW, when God was overseeing the Bible come into ENGLISH, He sure made a lot of mistakes, HE probably should have said some things a little bit differently huh? God Forbid. What God allowed into the KJV is what God wanted in the KJV, else He would have removed it, or caused it not to be added into it.
Originally Posted by
DiscipleDave
You teach it is not hierarchy, Scriptures plainly teaches it is. Husband is to Rule over the wife. Wife is to obey her husband. woman was made for the man. Husband is the Head of the wife. Hierarchy for sure. Jesus is over the Church, yes? Is it not instructed of wives to submit to their husband even as the Church to Jesus? Hierarchy.
You're welcome to see it that way. I don't.
And i am guessing you are women who thinks you are equal to your husband, and lives in America, am i right? it is no wander to me, that you see it differently than what Scriptures says it should be.
Because of the way you and I differ on the interpretation of Genesis 3:16, we likely won't agree on the rest of the passages.
No, we don't agree because you are a woman that does not agree with Scriptures which teaches those things that you do not agree with. You justify yourself by saying you disagree with ME, when it is not me that you disagree with but what Scriptures teach concerning wives to their husbands.
I see the hierarchy (among humans) as a direct result of the fall, not the intention of God.
Yes hierarchy was in Heaven as it is suppose to be on Earth as well.
Ephesians 5:21 teaches mutual submission;
Eph 5:21 Submitting yourselves one to another in the fear of God.
Oh, i see what you have done, you are trying to take this verse out of context to fit into your own doctrine of what you believe, by saying this verse applies to wives. but here is the TRUTH. Eph 5:21 is to All Christians everywhere, women and men. Eph 5:21 has NOTHING to do with husbands and wives, but the very next verse does.
Eph 5:21 Submitting yourselves one to another in the fear of God. (end of paragraph)
Eph 5:22 Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the Savior of the body. Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing.
Ephesians verses 1-21 are to ALL Christians, then Paul immediately addresses the wives in verse 22. To use verse 21 saying it is to and for the wives is to take that verse out of context to fit your own beliefs in what you think should be the TRUTH.
Ephesians 5:21 teaches mutual submission; if the husband "rules over" his wife, he is not practicing mutual submission, and it is far more likely that he will become a tyrant than a godly husband if he follows the "rule over" interpretation.
Are you saying for the past 6,000 years every husband who ruled over their wife was a tyrant? For some reason i perceive that you view the word "RULE" as a bad thing, something that should not be done. My Boss RULES over me, he tells me what to do, i do it, he is my Boss. Is He better than me, because he rules over me, Heavens no. Am i his slave? NO is the answer to that also. You are getting hung up on the word "RULE" as if it was a bad thing. Teachers RULE over their students. The Principal RULES over the teachers. The State RULES over the principal. The Federal gov RULES over the States. It is not a bad thing, but is a necessity to keep things in ORDER. Is the principal better than the Teacher? NO. The teachers teach, the principal RULES. Parents Rule over their children, does that make it bad? NO. Now what do you think would happen if children started RULING over their parents? Well we see evidence of that happening even today. There is NO ORDER. Have you ever been on a job with two or three Bosses, Miserable, NO ORDER. Likewise children today have two Bosses, MOM and DAD. if they don't like one answer they go to the other to see if they can get a different answer, why? Because BOTH are Bosses in that family. NO ORDER. It is not God's fault if people are not living by the ORDER that God has set up since ADAM and EVE were created, and has worked for over 6,000 years now. But leave it to the last days generation to desire NO ORDER. Women equal to men, children equal to parents. Children telling parents what they will eat and what they will not eat for dinner. NO ORDER. Parents making several things for dinner to serve the wishes of their children. NO ORDER.
Originally Posted by
DiscipleDave
Where is that written anywhere in all of Scriptures Old or New, that interpretation of Scriptures belong to humans? Sure we are to try to understand what Scriptures is trying to teach us or tell us, and sure we are to study Scriptures, knowing what is where, and what is written and what is not written. But when someone interprets the Scriptures to fit into their own false doctrines this is not of God.
Where does it say that the interpretation of Scripture doesn't belong to us? Interpretation includes taking the symbols on the page, assigning meaning to them based on known patterns, and assigning meaning to the collection of patterns. You can't get away from interpretation; you do it every time you read the Scripture. The point Peter was making is that only God can rightly interpret prophecy... he wasn't talking about Scripture in general. As to your last sentence above, I agree.
When a person goes about to interpret Scriptures satan will most certainly get involved. We are to seek the wisdom of the Holy Ghost. The Spirit of Truth reveals to us what the Spirit wants us to know. When people do not wait on the Spirit of Truth, they go to interpret the Word of God themselves, as if they had the authority to do so. It is the WORD OF GOD, do you think you are Holy enough, just enough, Righteous enough to try to interpret the Word of God, through YOUR own understanding, YOUR own interpretations. The Holy Ghost can teach a person things in 10 minutes that it would take a person 4 years of college to understand and grasp. Please click
HERE to see the verses about interpretations belong to God not to men.
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††† In His Holy and Precious Name, Jesus Christ †††
DiscipleDave