I have been told that the Greek "eis" used by Luke in Acts 2:38 ("so that" CEV) was not the best choice of words and that he should have used "dia" or "hoti" instead since these two words clearly mean "because of". Does anyone know what word is common or proper to convey "because of" in the Greek? Also which Bible versions use "because of" in Acts 2:38?
"EIS" OR "DIA" OR "HOTI" ??
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i have the english version if you get lost in translation.
all jewish at pentecoste.
8 And Peter said to them, "Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.Acts 2:
can you translate the part ware repent was used, when they holy spirit was given. in acts 10.
44 While Peter was still saying these things, the Holy Spirit fell on all who heard the word.45 And the believers from among the circumcised who had come with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit was poured out even on the Gentiles.Acts 10: Peter and Cornelius
sorry you wanted the greek, yet missed the english version, sorry
all jewish at pentecoste.
8 And Peter said to them, "Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.Acts 2:
can you translate the part ware repent was used, when they holy spirit was given. in acts 10.
44 While Peter was still saying these things, the Holy Spirit fell on all who heard the word.45 And the believers from among the circumcised who had come with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit was poured out even on the Gentiles.Acts 10: Peter and Cornelius
sorry you wanted the greek, yet missed the english version, sorry
If Luke had wished to convey the idea "because of," he could have used [FONT=Times New Roman, serif]ὅτι or perhaps even περὶ ([/FONT][FONT=Times New Roman, serif]about, concerning)[/FONT][FONT=Times New Roman, serif]. He could have even used ὑπὲρ which in the accusative means above but in other usage it is sometimes translated 'because of', 'concerning,' or on behalf of. And you have heard correctly, [/FONT]εἰς never means because of.
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif][/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif][/FONT]
Well, I am not Greek scholar either. Bauer offers a rather comprehensive lexical study of the uses of 'eis' in the N.T.
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]1. Of place – into, toward, to[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]2. Of time – up to which, continues, at which time.[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]3. Of degree – completely, fully, absolutely[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]4. Of goal – to indicate purpose.[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]5. Of reference to person or thing – for, to, with respect to, or with reference to.[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]6. Other uses – at, in the face of.[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]7. In Pregnant construction – to bring safely into.[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif][FONT=Times New Roman, serif]Εἰς is also used at times where ἐν would be expected – above, [/FONT][/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]1. Of place – into, toward, to[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]2. Of time – up to which, continues, at which time.[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]3. Of degree – completely, fully, absolutely[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]4. Of goal – to indicate purpose.[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]5. Of reference to person or thing – for, to, with respect to, or with reference to.[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]6. Other uses – at, in the face of.[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]7. In Pregnant construction – to bring safely into.[/FONT]
[FONT=Times New Roman, serif][FONT=Times New Roman, serif]Εἰς is also used at times where ἐν would be expected – above, [/FONT][/FONT]
There is no need for a different Greek word, the Holy Spirit knows exactly what words to use. Words always need to be interpreted in context of the verses, chapter, book and overall context of the Bible. We know the Bible teaches justification by faith. We also have a teaching from Peter on baptism, it's actually the only verses on water baptism in the New Testament, outside of the book of Acts. Justification by faith Romans 3:28 "For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law." Romans 5:1 "Therefore, since we have been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ."
Peter on water baptism I Peter 3:21 "Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ," Water baptism is not an appeal to get a good conscience, it's the appeal because of a good conscience, through the resurrection of Christ. Because His crucifixion was the negative side of redemption or the taking away of our trespasses and sins, His resurrection is for our justification or salvation, which is why we have a good conscience towards God. Romans 4:25 "who was delivered up for our trespasses and raised for our justification."
Acts 2:38 "And Peter said to them, “Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.39 For the promise is for you and for your children and for all who are far off, everyone whom the Lord our God calls to himself.” Is Peter saying that you need to be baptized in the name of Jesus to receive the remission of sins? No! If he was he would be contradicting what he just got through saying in verse 21, 17 verses earlier. "And it shall come to pass that everyone who calls upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." Why would he now say something different, that does not fit the overall context of the Scriptures? He wouldn't, so what is he saying?
In I Peter 3:21 He is using the word as "for" is fine, as is it in Acts 2:38, it just needs to retranslated in literal context with-in it's book, chapter, paragraph and sentence, in light of the overall context of the Bible. Here's where people get confused, they think that a literal interpretation is, "for" as in "to get or given", but that's not it's context, in view of verse 21. So in 3:21 the word "through" as in, "through the resurrection" is being used in the same way we use it when talking to someone with cancer. We say, "you need to go through, chemo for cancer" is the cancer as result of the chemo, no, it's a response to cancer. Now the word "for" it is being used in the same way we use the word "for" when we say, "take an aspirin for a headache" are you taking the aspirin to get the headache? No, you take the aspirin as a result of the headache.
Now in the literal context on the chapter and overall Scripture, Peter is not saying, "be baptized to get remission of sins", he's saying "be baptized as a result of remission of sins". That is the literal contextual interpretation of what Peter is saying in Acts 2:38 and in I Peter 3:21, Acts 2:38 is not revelation of who Jesus is or the correct way of salvation, the Bible does not teach baptismal regeneration, John 3:5 is not talking about water baptism. Again the greater context of Scripture teaches that our faith/repenting is a result of the Spirit moving in our hearts so that we place faith in the Gospel of truth, with repentance being the results of that birth. God first, we respond. For the word being water, read Ephesians 5:26, that the word/water, sanctifies and is part of the new birth. John 17:17, Ephesians 1:13, I Peter 1:23.
I Thessalonians 1:5 "because our gospel came to you not only in word, but also in power and in the Holy Spirit and with full conviction. You know what kind of men we proved to be among you for your sake. Full conviction as apposed to "convict" the world of sin, this word is in the same manor as it being a "conviction" of mine, a deep fitted assurance. The word "convict" in John 16:8 is "to test", Mounce's dictionary of New Testament Greek.
And by His will or His Spirit, with the word. James 1:18 "Of his own will he brought us forth by the word of truth, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures."
Or that Jesus is the Father, Son and Spirit, here are their functions in our redemption. Hebrews 9:14 "how much more will the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without blemish to God, purify our conscience from dead works to serve the living God."
I Peter 1:2 "according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in the sanctification of the Spirit, for obedience to Jesus Christ and for sprinkling with his blood:"
II Corinthians 13:14 "The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ and the love of God and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit be with you all."
Peter on water baptism I Peter 3:21 "Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ," Water baptism is not an appeal to get a good conscience, it's the appeal because of a good conscience, through the resurrection of Christ. Because His crucifixion was the negative side of redemption or the taking away of our trespasses and sins, His resurrection is for our justification or salvation, which is why we have a good conscience towards God. Romans 4:25 "who was delivered up for our trespasses and raised for our justification."
Acts 2:38 "And Peter said to them, “Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.39 For the promise is for you and for your children and for all who are far off, everyone whom the Lord our God calls to himself.” Is Peter saying that you need to be baptized in the name of Jesus to receive the remission of sins? No! If he was he would be contradicting what he just got through saying in verse 21, 17 verses earlier. "And it shall come to pass that everyone who calls upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." Why would he now say something different, that does not fit the overall context of the Scriptures? He wouldn't, so what is he saying?
In I Peter 3:21 He is using the word as "for" is fine, as is it in Acts 2:38, it just needs to retranslated in literal context with-in it's book, chapter, paragraph and sentence, in light of the overall context of the Bible. Here's where people get confused, they think that a literal interpretation is, "for" as in "to get or given", but that's not it's context, in view of verse 21. So in 3:21 the word "through" as in, "through the resurrection" is being used in the same way we use it when talking to someone with cancer. We say, "you need to go through, chemo for cancer" is the cancer as result of the chemo, no, it's a response to cancer. Now the word "for" it is being used in the same way we use the word "for" when we say, "take an aspirin for a headache" are you taking the aspirin to get the headache? No, you take the aspirin as a result of the headache.
Now in the literal context on the chapter and overall Scripture, Peter is not saying, "be baptized to get remission of sins", he's saying "be baptized as a result of remission of sins". That is the literal contextual interpretation of what Peter is saying in Acts 2:38 and in I Peter 3:21, Acts 2:38 is not revelation of who Jesus is or the correct way of salvation, the Bible does not teach baptismal regeneration, John 3:5 is not talking about water baptism. Again the greater context of Scripture teaches that our faith/repenting is a result of the Spirit moving in our hearts so that we place faith in the Gospel of truth, with repentance being the results of that birth. God first, we respond. For the word being water, read Ephesians 5:26, that the word/water, sanctifies and is part of the new birth. John 17:17, Ephesians 1:13, I Peter 1:23.
I Thessalonians 1:5 "because our gospel came to you not only in word, but also in power and in the Holy Spirit and with full conviction. You know what kind of men we proved to be among you for your sake. Full conviction as apposed to "convict" the world of sin, this word is in the same manor as it being a "conviction" of mine, a deep fitted assurance. The word "convict" in John 16:8 is "to test", Mounce's dictionary of New Testament Greek.
And by His will or His Spirit, with the word. James 1:18 "Of his own will he brought us forth by the word of truth, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures."
Or that Jesus is the Father, Son and Spirit, here are their functions in our redemption. Hebrews 9:14 "how much more will the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without blemish to God, purify our conscience from dead works to serve the living God."
I Peter 1:2 "according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in the sanctification of the Spirit, for obedience to Jesus Christ and for sprinkling with his blood:"
II Corinthians 13:14 "The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ and the love of God and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit be with you all."
The oneness group, says that Acts 2:28 is the same as John 3:16, that it is the way of salvation and that it is a proof text that Jesus is the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. Because Jesus said baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit. Since Peter said b baptized in Jesus name that after receiving the Holy Spirit, that Peter had a revelation that Jesus was all three.
The word "EIs" is fine as you've stated, it just needs to be interpreted in the context of the chapter and the overall context of the Scripture.
The word "EIs" is fine as you've stated, it just needs to be interpreted in the context of the chapter and the overall context of the Scripture.
We seem to have gotten off the point. The issue is not what the English word "for" means but what the Greek word "eis" means. The quoted version, CEV does not even use "for" but "so that" so why are we even talking about the word "for"? OldHermit states that defining "eis" as "because of" is wrong. I seem to agree since no Bible uses this translation. I would prefer to lean on the Greek scholars since they seem to agree 100% on not using "because of".