Born Again Vs. Saved

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Nov 23, 2013
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I desire to be present with you now, and to change my voice; for I stand in doubt of you.
Galatians 4:20 KJV

What does verse 20 mean?
They're trying to please God by keeping the law. They were just like most Christians today.
 

SovereignGrace

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
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I said I was done here, but you brought up something I have to address.

Is there another Spirit that made them born again? No.

The Holy Ghost wasn't given until Pentecost.

John 16:7 KJV
Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.
Here's the thing. Being birthed in by the Spirit and being indwelt are two entirely different things. The birth from above, being born again, is the Spirit of life giving life to the dead in sins sinner. They are given faith and repentance and are saved. That has always been the case. Abraham was declared righteous before God. None can be born again and not be declared righteous.

Yes, they had the Spirit, but not in the plenitude we have it today. I think Adam Clarke's commentary on John 7:51 is really good...

Was not yet given - Δεδομενον, given is added by the Codex Vaticanus, (B.) the Syriac, all the Persic, later Syriac with an asterisk, three copies of the Slavonic, Vulgate, and all the Itala but three; and several of the primitive fathers. The word seems necessary to the completion of the sense.


Certain measures of the Holy Spirit had been vouchsafed from the beginning of the world to believers and unbelievers: but that abundant effusion of his graces spoken of by Joel, Joel 2:28, which peculiarly characterized the Gospel times, was not granted till after the ascension of Christ:
  1. Because this Spirit in its plenitude was to come in consequence of his atonement; and therefore could not come till after his crucifixion.

2. It was to supply the place of Christ to his disciples and to all true believers; and therefore it was not necessary till after the removal of his bodily presence from among them. See our Lord's own words, John 14:16-18, John 14:26; John 15:26; John 16:7-15.
 

SovereignGrace

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
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Doesn't 1 Peter 1:23 say that the incorruptible seed IS the word of God? incorruptible seed is the descriptor of the word of God.

1 Peter 1:23 KJV
Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
But you can't conflate the word of God with it being solely the word of God. The word of God was never penned into English until the 1500's, IIRC. So for centuries, ppl went around not having the word of God, by using your logic.
 
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pottersclay

Guest
yes, not recreates, but creates. Ty for that, I wouldn't last long here in the BF. now you know why I"m not here that much.. :)
Nonsense you come here as much as you like. Every one ooops sometimes.
Did you know Billy gram practiced his preaching on a boat floating down a river talking to the trees?...true that.
You fit right in, besides you need to thicken your skin a bit saint....we all do...lol

Blessings...potter
 
Nov 23, 2013
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He who begun the good work of salvation in us according to His seed as Christ in us will finish His work. We have his confidence we study according to the comandment to seek His aproval. He causes the growth.


Phi 1:6 Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ:
I don't see how that response has anything to do with the question I asked you.
 
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limey410

Guest
They're trying to please God by keeping the law. They were just like most Christians today.
I believe they were also and to the extent where Paul was questioning if they were even saved.
But now, after that ye have known God, or rather are known of God, how turn ye again to the weak and beggarly elements, whereunto ye desire again to be in bondage?
Galatians 4:9 KJV
Notice Paul changes his original statement that they knew God to rather known of God. There is a distinction and Paul makes it.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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But you can't conflate the word of God with it being solely the word of God. The word of God was never penned into English until the 1500's, IIRC. So for centuries, ppl went around not having the word of God, by using your logic.
I don't believe God's people have ever been without the word of God.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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I believe they were also and to the extent where Paul was questioning if they were even saved.
But now, after that ye have known God, or rather are known of God, how turn ye again to the weak and beggarly elements, whereunto ye desire again to be in bondage?
Galatians 4:9 KJV
Notice Paul changes his original statement that they knew God to rather known of God. There is a distinction and Paul makes it.
How is the Spirit of Christ in someone who is not saved? Do you believe a person can lose their salvation?
 

SovereignGrace

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
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I don't believe God's people have ever been without the word of God.
Everybody before Moses had no visable word to read, seeing it was Moses who penned the Pentateuch. That's why God spoke verbally with them. And yes, He spoke verbally with others after His word was penned.
 

preacher4truth

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
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Are you telling me that pople <sic> who have the Sprit <sic> of Christ in their hearts are not saved?
You should slow down your typing so as not to garner typos showing your haste as if you have an irrefutable answer. Stop trying to put words in others mouths, I've stated no such thing.

Paul is making a philosophical argument concerning sonship. This does not mean he thinks they are saved, he is making an argument about sonship and using them as the subject. Your literalism is killing you thus you don't understand and wreck havoc on much of Scripture in your KJVO sectarianism.

He later says he stands in doubt of them; 4:19. He was looking for evidence of conversion, as he was not convinced. He also shows this in 4:11.

"...he did not know what to think of them, and their state; sometimes he hoped well of them, at other times he was ready to despair; nor did he well know what course to take with them, whether to use them roughly or smoothly, and what arguments might be most proper and pertinent, in order to reclaim them." - Gill
 
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Nov 23, 2013
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Everybody before Moses had no visable word to read, seeing it was Moses who penned the Pentateuch. That's why God spoke verbally with them. And yes, He spoke verbally with others after His word was penned.
If the word of the Lord came to Abram, why wouldn't he come to others before him. He spoke to Noah.
 

preacher4truth

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
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It's amazing that KJVO would preach some as saved who are bewitched by a false gospel. It's all good as long as they can force one of their heresies into a text. "They were born again but not saved, even though they were believing in a false gospel."

That's right, they do this.

They would preach the lost into heaven if they could use it to support KJVO error. Everything must submit to KJVO sectarianism.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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You should slow down your typing so as not to garner typos showing your haste as if you have an irrefutable answer. Stop trying to put words in others mouths, I've stated no such thing.

Paul is making a philosophical argument concerning sonship. This does not mean he thinks they are saved, he is making an argument about sonship and using them as the subject. Your literalism is killing you thus you don't understand and wreck havoc on much of Scripture in your KJVO sectarianism.

He later says he stands in doubt of them; 4:19. He was looking for evidence of conversion, as he was not convinced. He also shows this in 4:11.

"...he did not know what to think of them, and their state; sometimes he hoped well of them, at other times he was ready to despair; nor did he well know what course to take with them, whether to use them roughly or smoothly, and what arguments might be most proper and pertinent, in order to reclaim them." - Gill
Sorry, I have a bluetooth key board that doesn't always register my key stoke. I can appreciate your opinion, but I don't agree.
 

preacher4truth

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
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Sorry, I have a bluetooth key board that doesn't always register my key stoke. I can appreciate your opinion, but I don't agree.
Oh, not going to own your attempt to put words in my mouth, right?

You haven't even had time to think it through, and I didn't give opinion, I showed you what the Word says. He never claimed them as saved, the context shows this. You will have none of it because it dismantles your KJVOism.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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It's amazing that KJVO would preach some as saved who are bewitched by a false gospel. It's all good as long as they can force one of their heresies into a text. "They were born again but not saved, even though they were believing in a false gospel."

That's right, they do this.

They would preach the lost into heaven if they could use it to support KJVO error. Everything must submit to KJVO sectarianism.
I don't know man I just read the words below and it makes sense to me that those people are saved. Why do you think they are not?


Galatians 4:6-8 KJV
And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.
[7] Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ.
[8] Howbeit then, when ye knew not God, ye did service unto them which by nature are no gods.
 
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limey410

Guest
How is the Spirit of Christ in someone who is not saved? Do you believe a person can lose their salvation?
I most certainly do not believe one can lose Salvation, I can however believe that not all in the Church at Galatia were saved.
 
Dec 2, 2016
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What is your take on this verse?

Paul is talking to saved Galatians, what does he mean by "until Christ be formed in you"? Is this the second birth?

Galatians 4:19 KJV
My little children, of whom I travail in birth again until Christ be formed in you,
I believe Paul was speaking in a metaphor, he was trying to get those particular Christians back where they were suppose to be in Christ.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Oh, not going to own your attempt to put words in my mouth, right?

You haven't even had time to think it through, and I didn't give opinion, I showed you what the Word says. He never claimed them as saved, the context shows this. You will have none of it because it dismantles your KJVOism.
I think maybe you should take a break... you seem to be getting uptight.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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I most certainly do not believe one can lose Salvation, I can however believe that not all in the Church at Galatia were saved.
Which verse did he stop talking to the saved ones and begin to talk with the unsaved ones?
 

preacher4truth

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
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I don't know man I just read the words below and it makes sense to me that those people are saved. Why do you think they are not?
I've already offered that argument, but you'll have none of it. Your literalism has blinded you. Let's use your literalism in Romans 2. Go read it. Take it literally, don't see it as an argument from Paul, take it literally. When you do that you'll be preaching people into heaven by their works, and no need of Christ to die for them.

You don't use critical thinking because of your literalism, which you cannot apply consistently across Scripture as a hermeneutical principle of interpretation.

This shows the fallacy of how you interpret and that since it is inconsistent it cannot be true.

But, you won't care about this, you'll carry on in error and will refuse to see it and accept it.