I was in Christ years before I started to speak in tongues as the Holy Spirit gave me the utterance. Acts 2:4 . I wanted to make sure that was clear.
So you were saved and then later on, you had prayed to the Father to speak in tongues and that was when you had received the Holy Spirit "again" in getting that tongue?
So you would identify with option 3 from the poll?
I don't for a second believe that one needs to speak in tongues to be a Christian or to "prove" that one has Christ in them.
I am glad, but there are tongue speakers out there that do say that.... even indirectly.
My next door neighbor was reading her Bible one day at the kitchen table when she claimed the Holy Spirit came over her ans she began speaking in tongues. I had asked her what she was reading that led her to believe in Jesus Christ. She had said that she did not know what I had meant. Then she must have figured it out because she went on to say that she had gone to her pastor and asked him what had happened to her when she was a believer for most of her life. She reported that the pastor pointed to the Book of Acts which I can only assume Acts 2 when the disciples were all waiting as instructed by the Lord. Anyway... setting that assumption aside, she went on to explain that incident again proclaiming that was when she got saved when she got the Holy Spirit & tongues all at once.
Now indirectly, to any hearer, that is like saying if you do not speak in tongues, you do not have the Holy Spirit, and therefore you are not saved, but as it is, she moved her salvation date to when she believed that was the Holy Spirit coming over her, in bringing that tongue.
She went on to speak in general of other people sharing similar accounts in her church for which she rolled her eyes at and did not care to explain that disbelief further, but I suspected she was thinking people were hogging the spotlight away from her with ridiculous accounts as to when it happened when she was reading her Bible.
Anyway... indirectly, you are testifying to the third option in the survey as receiving the Holy Spirit "again" when you got that tongue.
But we do "get" to speak to our Father and speak mysteries to Him in the spirit in our private devotional prayer to Him. 1 Cor. 14:2.
No. There are no mysteries to the Father. That is why mysteries are to the hearers of that tongue speaker. And evidence that this is being done publicly is how Paul was trying to compare tongues to prophesy as to why prophesy is better than tongues when any believer is zealous for spiritual gift, because tongues is not a stand alone gift. It has to come with interpretation or it is not of Him at all.
1 Corinthians 14:1Follow after charity, and desire spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy.[SUP] 2 [/SUP]For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God:
for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
Paul was explaining why prophesy is better than tongues because only God understands him, but not men for the reason why it has to come with interpretation and thus it is not a stand alone gift, but the gift of prophesy can stand alone.
"I will" pray with my spirit and "I will" pray with my mind too.
I also sing with both my spirit and my mind.
Nowhere does it say Holy Spirit is the One praying in tongues.
In context, Paul is saying that when any one speaks in tongues, they are to pray that someone else may interpret that tongue so that tongue will be fruitful to the tongue speaker.
1 Corinthians 14:[SUP]12 [/SUP]Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church.[SUP] 13 [/SUP]Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret.[SUP] 14 [/SUP]For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful.[SUP]15 [/SUP]What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.
1 Corinthians 14:2 (NASB)
[SUP]2 [/SUP] For one who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God; for no one understands, but in his spirit he speaks mysteries.
1 Corinthians 14:14-15 (NASB)
[SUP]14 [/SUP] For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful.
[SUP]15 [/SUP] What is the outcome then? I will pray with the spirit and I will pray with the mind also; I will sing with the spirit and I will sing with the mind also.
KJV has verse 2 different; your message is getting askewed in the NASB.
1 Corinthians 14:[SUP]2 [/SUP]For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit
in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
You either believe the Holy Spirit is manifesting tongues or his spirit is speaking. See? NASB does not really share the same message f the KJV nor what you are trying to say, because in the KJV, Paul is talking aboit 2 different things in relation to praying and speaking in tongues. Verse 2 is the Holy Spirit speaking..... whereas in the spiritual realm he is speaking mysteries because no man understands him.
In verse 14-15, Paul is the one praying by his own spirit that someone else may interpret the tongue that is being manifested by the Holy Spirit in him.
Anyway.. thanks for sharing. As you see by my reply why I still disagree with what you are applying in the scripture about tongues being used without interpretation, because that is not what I am reading in the KJV.