Well, since you asked for it...
It is polite to stick to the OP anyway.
Use a little logic here. Is there any sense in thinking that just because man was created first, that woman should therefore be silent? Is that not the essence of a non sequitur? This passage makes perfect sense if Paul is addressing cultic beliefs that the woman was formed first and had secret knowledge, and that a woman teaching such things in the assembly ought to be silent and learn the truth first.
It is a principle of hermeneutics and exegesis that "if the plain sense makes sense, then seek no other sense". However, in this case, the plain sense doesn't make sense, so it is worthwhile to look further.
Then take everything in scripture on the context of that topic, because Paul is not addressing cultic beliefs.
1 Timothy 2:[SUP]11[/SUP]
Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.[SUP] 12 [/SUP]But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.[SUP]13 [/SUP]For Adam was first formed, then Eve.[SUP]14 [/SUP]And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
You cannot have Paul saying that in verses 11-12 prior to addressing a cultic belief as you claim in verse 13. Paul si saying women are to be in silence BECAUSE Adam was formed first and then Eve.. and Eve was deceived which led to Adam's doubting God's words which he had heard directly from Him that led to his fall.
Nowhere in the Law does it say any such thing. That is a big clue that Paul is quoting someone else. Again, the plain sense does not make sense.
Then we see it again as to why... as saith the law as referred to by Paul.
1 Corinthians 14:[SUP]34 [/SUP]
Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law.[SUP]35 [/SUP]And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home:
for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.[SUP] 36 [/SUP]What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only?[SUP] 37 [/SUP]If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.[SUP]38 [/SUP]But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant.
Paul said it. What law?
Genesis 3:[SUP]16 [/SUP]Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and
he shall rule over thee.
The order is significant. It is not God-Christ-man-woman! If it were, this might be a slam-dunk argument. However, the terms are singular, which suggests the context of marriage, not the assembly.
I would say this particular law is about everything.....not just in marriage.
1 Corinthians 11:3But I would have you know, that
the head of every man is Christ; and
the head of the woman is the man; and
the head of Christ is God.
Ephesians 4:15
But speaking the truth in love, may grow up into him in all things, which is the head, even Christ:
Ephesians 5:[SUP]22[/SUP]
Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord.[SUP] 23 [/SUP]For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body
.[SUP]24 [/SUP]Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing.
As I noted earlier, and have done so many times, a careful reading of Genesis 3 will reveal that this is not a command at all. It is a statement of consequence... what will happen, not what must happen. As it is neither a curse nor a command, it does not support either 1 Cor. 14 or 1 Tim 2. in the complementarian view. Actually, the complementarian view is a perfect fulfillment of the consequence... men attempting to rule over women (and not always in a righteous way, as earlier comments demonstrate). Consider this if you still don't accept my view: why would God, Who is the essence of wisdom, righteousness and holiness, install now-sinful man as the head over woman?
Then explain what Paul was talking about then for he referred to the silence and subjection as of the law and as a commandment from the Lord. I am not the one saying it. Paul said it.... the scriptures says it.. therefore God has said it.