S
savedtoast
Guest
The more time I waste writing here another child dies...and another, oh Lord how many children more.
where does it say that a believer must believe the Son is the Most High to obtain salvation?
Glad to see that you’ll admit that Theos was not the Theon (the God). So tell me, does Theon and Theos have a different meaning if they do or don’t have a definite article in front of them?
Glad to see that you’ll admit that Theos was not the Theon (the God). So tell me, does Theon and Theos have a different meaning if they do or don’t have a definite article in front of them?
Difference in being God? No. You cant say that one is God and the second is only "divine" or anything similar.
Difference in persons? Yes. Son was with Father. They are both God.
I think Jesus would be proud of us all today for tackling his divine sovereignty, whoops there dies another hungry child.
Theon and Theos do have different meanings to them with or without the definite article. You should look into it a little more.
Theon and Theos do have different meanings to them with or without the definite article. You should look into it a little more.
hHopefully these verses will offer clarity for you regarding this.where does it say that a believer must believe the Son is the Most High to obtain salvation?
Your understanding of the Greek is not accurate.John 1:1 would be an excellent example. “In the beginning was the word, and the word was “with” THE Theon, and Theos was the word.
Notice how the word was not the Theon? Rather, it was with the Theon. John made sure to show a distinction in saying that the word was not the Theon, but rather a separate Theos, who was with the Theon but not actually being the Theon.
In many English translations, you get the impression that the word and the God (the Theon) are one and the same. This is simply not the case when examining it in the Greek. A more appropriate translation would render it “and the word was divine”.
I missed a small phrase, this sentence should read: 'Put together in the correct order this verse is clearly teaching that the Word was eternal, the Word was with God, the Word was God, but that the Word is not the same as God (the Father), yet is otherwise God in every way that the Father is.'Your understanding of the Greek is not accurate.
All the confusion is removed by looking at the last phrase: καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
You have translated it word-for-word but missed its meaning and significance.
That phrase is a very special grammatical construct called a predicate nominative.
Because λόγος takes the article it MUST be the subject. Also, the predicate nominative, θεὸς lacks the article, yet the word order has it leading. The significance of this is that the Word is to have all the qualities of God yet is not God (the Father) and so for an English translation to make any sense it must be translated: 'and the Word was God'
The previous phrase is a simple prepositional phrase: καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν.
There is no overt significance to the presence of an article here since Greek will often use an article where it would be inappropriate to translate the article directly and just as frequently the Greek will omit an article in a situation where an English translation would not make grammatical sense without an article.
And so the translation is 'and the Word was with God'
Put together in the correct order this verse is clearly teaching that the Word was eternal, the Word was God, but that the Word is not the same as God (the Father), yet is otherwise God in every way that the Father is.
Later on in the same chapter vs 14, the identity of the Word is revealed as none other than Jesus Christ manifest in the flesh.
hHopefully these verses will offer clarity for you regarding this.
Matthew 16:16
And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God.
Acts 16:31
And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house.
I think they are done by now.
Triunity is so clearly in Scriptures that they have no chance except of ignoring it.
It used to be clear back in the day when most people believed in the KJV’s rendering of 1 John 5:7-8. How did that turn out?
No idea, I have never used the KJV.
Its in the text of Erasmus, though.
It used to be clear back in the day when most people believed in the KJV’s rendering of 1 John 5:7-8. How did that turn out?
1 John 5:7 as it still reads in the KJV, was proven to be a forgery. That’s why it appears different in almost all of your modern Bible translations.