You will just ignore and reject my answer anyway guys. How did the death of Christ fulfill the "Thou shall not commit adultery" Commandment?
How did the death of Jesus fulfill the Levitical Priesthood "works of the Law" for remission of sins?
How was Jesus considered worthy of paying my death penalty? Was it because He was cleansed by or followed the Levitical Priesthood? Or was it because He Followed God Commandments perfectly?
So was Jesus judged as perfect because He followed man made doctrines and traditions? Or because He obeyed His fathers instructions perfectly.
So what law made Jesus perfect? God's Commandments or the Levitical Priesthood?
Heb. 7:
11If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need
was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
How did the Levitical Priesthood "foreshadow" Christ's Sacrifice?
How did the Commandment "thou Shall not Commit Adultery" foreshadow Christ's Sacrifice?
It is Paul that explains the difference between the "Law of Works" and the "Law of Faith".
Rom. 3:
27 Where
is boasting then? It is excluded.
By what law? of works?
Nay: but by the
law of faith.
So regarding the
Law of Works Paul says:
28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith
without the deeds of the law.
Does the "Law" say that if we "Don't do Adultery" our sins are forgiven? Or does the "Law" teach we were, before the Seed should come, to bring offerings to the Levite and he performed "works" with it for the cleansing of our sins?
We are Commanded to Love God and Have faith in Him, Yes. It is God's Commandment that we Love him and Keep His Commandments. This is the "Law of Faith"
So regarding the Law of Faith, Paul says"
Rom. 2:
11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
12 For as many as have sinned without law
shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law
shall be judged by the law;
13 (
For not the hearers of the law are just before God,
but the doers of the law shall be justified.
What Law is he talking about here. If I believe you and GP and every mainstream preacher on the planet, I would have to conclude that Paul is speaking about ALL 613 (or whatever the Popes last count is) laws. You all preach they can not be separated. You entire religious foundation is built on the mainstream doctrine that you can't separate the Levitical Priesthood from the righteous Laws Abraham was blessed for keeping.
I don't write this for you because you refuse to even consider that Paul might be right and you wrong. You are convinced in your own mind and there is nothing Jesus, Paul or God Almighty can say to change that.
But for others who might by following, can you see the point of my post?
Can you see the difference between the "ADDED" "Law of Works", added because of transgression of the "Law of Faith" Abraham kept, until the SEED should come?
When you understand this you don't have to throw out the volumes of scriptures necessary to support mainstream doctrines.
Then you understand why Pay can say on one hand.
13 (For not the hearers of the law
are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
And on the other:
28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.