Does the Bible claim to be inerrant?
- Thread starter Antony_me
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That’s what the scripture says.
Can God use an ass to speak to a prophet?
Can ignorant men be saved?
Can saved men remain ignorant?
All who follow Jesus, love the truth, and they that love truth turn away from corrupt bibles when they are proven corrupt.
The NIV promotes the antichrist spirit in John 3:16.
Only the authorized version is used by the Holy Ghost as a book.
God hates confusion.
Can God use an ass to speak to a prophet?
Can ignorant men be saved?
Can saved men remain ignorant?
All who follow Jesus, love the truth, and they that love truth turn away from corrupt bibles when they are proven corrupt.
The NIV promotes the antichrist spirit in John 3:16.
Only the authorized version is used by the Holy Ghost as a book.
God hates confusion.
And your point is?
You’re making up a lie and adding it to the word of God?
Only to do what you authorize?
You’re just playing around pretending you can escape the authority of God’s Holy Bible. You can’t.
What’s more obvious though, is that you have nothing backing up any of your unbelief in the Authorized Version.
Jesus Christ is head of the church.
Whereas, King James the first, published the Holy Bible by the authority given him by God.
You’re making up a lie and adding it to the word of God?
Only to do what you authorize?
You’re just playing around pretending you can escape the authority of God’s Holy Bible. You can’t.
What’s more obvious though, is that you have nothing backing up any of your unbelief in the Authorized Version.
Jesus Christ is head of the church.
Whereas, King James the first, published the Holy Bible by the authority given him by God.
How can you be sure that God chose King James to authorize a written copy of his word? For the record, I prefer the KJV and the NKJV. Also, I'm sure that God has indeed authorize the versions of His written word though each generation in a language and format that the average person can relate to and understand. I just don't see how anyone con conclusively say that a person, church, or entity was placed in such a position to make a claim of authority over the translation, revision or compilation of God's written word.
If you are going to cite Thayer's Lexicon, you should cite the full discussion of the word in question!
First Thayer agrees that as used in Luke 1:1, πληροφορέω means accomplished or completed. (See geeen highlight)
While Thayer does indeed say πληροφορέω can mean fully persuaded he states conditions (see blue highlight)
We do NOT find τινα ....... [FONT=lucida\ console]ἐν[/FONT] with the dative of thing) in Luke 1:1.
NT:4135
NT:4135 πληροφορέω, πληροφόρω: (1 aorist imperative πληοφόρησον, infinitive πληροφορησαι Rom 15:13 L marginal reading); passive, present imperative plhroθορείσθω ; perfect participle πεπληροφορημεωος ; 1 aorist participle πληροφορηθείς); (from the unused adjective πληροθορος, and this from πλήρης and φέρω); to bear or bring full, to make full; a. to cause a thing to be shown to the full: τήν διακονίαν , i. e. to fulfil the ministry in every respect, 2 Tim 4:5 (cf. = πληροῦν τήν διακονίαν, Acts 12:25); also τό κήρυγμα, 2 Tim 4:17. b. "to carry through to the end, accomplish: πράγματα πεπληροφορημεωα, things that have been accomplished (Itala and Vulg. completae), Luke 1:1 (cf. ὡς ἐπληρώθη ταῦτα , Acts 19:21) (cf. Meyer edition Weiss at the passage). c. τινα, to fill one with any thought, conviction, or inclination: (Rom 15:13 L marginal reading (followed by [FONT=lucida\ console]ἐν[/FONT] with the dative of thing): others, πλερόω, which see, 1); hence, to make one certain, to persuade, convince, one (καί ὅρκοις πληροθορησαντες Μεγαβυζον , extracted from Ctesias (401 B.C.) in Photius, p. 41, 29 ((edited by Bekker); but on this passive, see Lightfoot as below)); passive, to be persuaded, Rom 14:5; πληροθορηθεις, persuaded, fully convinced or assured, Rom 4:21; also peplhrouorήμενοι, Col 4:12 L T Tr WH; οἱ ἀπόστολοι ... πληροθορηθεντες διά τῆς ἀνστάσεως τοῦ κυρίου Ἰησοῦ Κριστοῦ καί πιστωθενθες ἐν τῷ λόγῳ τοῦ Θεοῦ, Clement of Rome, 1 Cor. 42, 3 [ET]; frequent so in ecclesiastical writings; to render inclined or bent on,
, Eccl 8:11 (cf. Test xii. Patr., test. Gad 2). The word is treated of fully by Bleek, Brief an d. Heb 2:2, p. 233ff; Grimm in the Jahrbb. f. Deutsche TheoI. for 1871, p. 38ff; (Lightfoot's Commentary on Col 4:12. Cf. also Sophocles' Lexicon, under the word.)*
I know because God authorizes kings and King James the first, authorized the English version called the Holy Bible.
God does all things well and thus, always in accordance with his own written word.
I also note that the instructions of King James resulted in the literal fulfillment of Psalm 12:6, by insuring that every translated word in the Holy Bible was judged seven times in the hearts of the translators as per their committee rules.
That is, I perceive that the heart of men filled by the Holy Ghost are the earthen furnace God spoke of.
But the evidence has been set before men’s for over 4oo years.
Simply compare the Authorized with any other supposed scripture from any source.
God does all things well and thus, always in accordance with his own written word.
I also note that the instructions of King James resulted in the literal fulfillment of Psalm 12:6, by insuring that every translated word in the Holy Bible was judged seven times in the hearts of the translators as per their committee rules.
That is, I perceive that the heart of men filled by the Holy Ghost are the earthen furnace God spoke of.
But the evidence has been set before men’s for over 4oo years.
Simply compare the Authorized with any other supposed scripture from any source.
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God indeed appoints all in positions of authority whether that person is good or evil to accomplish His expressed purpose. That doe not mean that God condones everything that such a leader does. I am sure that God did in fact approve of the efforts this king made to spread His precious word to the masses. I believe that you have made valid points in your defense that King James was placed in a position of authority to say that this book is indeed the Word of God. I believe that it is the Word of God also but I also believe that all of the major versions or translations are the Word of God also and these too serve and accomplish His expressed purpose.
I have no need to defend assertions I have not made.
I have no need to respond to assertions or questions made to "haters of God's written word" as I am not one.
I haven't made excuses.
I only see you continuing to engage in logical fallacies and emotionally-charged badgering in an apparent attempt to get your way in this discussion. When you present evidence to support your assertions, then we can have a rational discussion.
I have no need to respond to assertions or questions made to "haters of God's written word" as I am not one.
I haven't made excuses.
I only see you continuing to engage in logical fallacies and emotionally-charged badgering in an apparent attempt to get your way in this discussion. When you present evidence to support your assertions, then we can have a rational discussion.