KING JAMES VERSION BIBLE VS. MODERN ENGLISH BIBLES

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preston39

Senior Member
Dec 18, 2017
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I think its comical that ppl act pious and spell the word God like this----> G-d, then have an image of a cross in their avatar. Lullz....
S...,

An ancient Hebrew salutation for G-d.

That is a typical commentary from someone who is not informed; maybe this will help to enlighten you so you will not make the same mistake again;

The Temple Institute: Articles: Why do we leave out the "o" in G-d?

[FONT=&quot]Why do we leave out the "o" G-d?[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A Note About the Spelling of G-d's Name


[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Why do we leave out the "o" when referring to G-d?According to Hebrew tradition we do not write out the Creator's name in any language, unless as part of a printed book which we know will be preserved with dignity and treated as holy. Refraining from writing out His name is a sign of reverence and awe for the Creator. If this name were to be written out and then, the paper on which it was written would become lost or destroyed, or even if it was brought into an unclean place, this would be showing disrespect and it would be a desecration of His name.[/FONT]
 

preston39

Senior Member
Dec 18, 2017
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l'm saying that Jesus who is the one God was talking to the Father which is the same one God. God is not bound by our constraints, he can be God in heaven at the same time he is God in flesh on earth. Both are the same one God or else there are 3 God's which I don't believe and I'm sure you don't either. :)
K...,

That is a different point than the one in contention; Where else in scriptures was Christ speaking to Himself?
 

preston39

Senior Member
Dec 18, 2017
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No, the physical body of Christ was made by God 2000 years ago, it did not exist in eternity.
K....,

Not nitpicking here but, are you saying Christ was not born of a normal birth?
 
Nov 23, 2013
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K...,

That is a different point than the one in contention; Where else in scriptures was Christ speaking to Himself?
I don't know of any place in scripture where Jesus spoke to himself. :)
 

preston39

Senior Member
Dec 18, 2017
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The follow bible study guide will help;

1) Take the Bible literally..whenever possible. If typical, figurative or symbolic language is used then we must look for a literal interpretation it intends to convey.
2) Look for scripture which interprets scripture.
3) Do not spiritualize the Bible.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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The follow bible study guide will help;

1) Take the Bible literally..whenever possible. If typical, figurative or symbolic language is used then we must look for a literal interpretation it intends to convey.
2) Look for scripture which interprets scripture.
3) Do not spiritualize the Bible.
From what I can tell the biggest majority is figurative, very little straight forward.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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In the late 1960s and early 1970s I had a pastor friend who was definitely KJVO and said he got his KJVO stance from Fallwell.

I never had any reason to doubt him. I believe that the 17th century Baptist stance you just cited was regarding Scripture, NOT a particular translation.
Yep Sir, being Fallwell in fundamentalist group, he used KJV but not the stance of most Baptists preachers then. Later promoted NKJV.

In so far, the 1689 Baptist Confession of faith believe about the scriptures is given by the inspiration of God. Scripture is given by inspiration of God = KJV, I think.

Here's another: The first ABS

The American Bible Society was founded in 1816 by people who were committed to the word of God and to the end of slavery...
The American Bible Society used the King James Bible, and indeed starting in 1858 appointed committees to be sure to avoid any textual corruption.[SUP][4][/SUP] The American Bible Society provided the first Bibles in hotels and the first pocket Bibles for soldiers during the American Civil War. The first translation by the Bible Society was in 1818 into Lenape of Delaware, a Native American language.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Bible_Society
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
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My belief is based on experieince... you don't have that experieince and you wont be able to see proof. I could show you stuff all day long and you will dismiss it one after another. I'm a seed planter, if the seed takes, if it don't it don't.
You have no way to know his experience or mine or that of any other member arguing the opposing point of view.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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You have no way to know his experience or mine or that of any other member arguing the opposing point of view.
Sure I can know your understanding of truth from the KJV. I know that you and almost everybody else on this forum including the KJV onlies don't believe every word for exactly what it says.

When a person (not necessarily you) says the word "hate" doesn't really mean hate, you just tripped over the stumbling block God laid for you and you have absolutely no ability to understand the spiritual concept and spiritual gem that was hidden there.

So yeah, I can know that your version of truth will vary very greatly from someone who believes every word as written. You already know this yourself... your beliefs don't line up with mine.
 
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Of the approximate 600,000 men that God delivered out of Egypt, only TWO of those were allowed to enter into the land flowing with milk and honey - milk and honey representing the milk and meat of the word of God.

For those that don't know, those Israelites were saved. They were covered by the blood of the lamb. Now apply that shadow to the church. Out of all the believers who are saved and covered by the blood of Jesus, a very very small few have or will enter into the promise land.

Just saying... Whatever the bulk of "Israel" today is saying and doing, is NOT what you want to be doing if you want to enter the promised land.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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How is it that you know for certain that God didn't authorize the KJV?
Because there are many errors in it.

He could use it for His plan as well as any other tool, but I do not find any special inspiration/authorization for this translation which would make it unique and all other translations "evil".
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Because there are many errors in it.

He could use it for His plan as well as any other tool, but I do not find any special inspiration/authorization for this translation which would make it unique and all other translations "evil".
It's your opinion that the KJV has many errors. Why do you consider something to be error just because it doesn't match copies of original writings?

Take Easter as an example, why is Easter an error? Easter is the fulfillment of Passover, it's just a word choice.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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It's your opinion that the KJV has many errors. Why do you consider something to be error just because it doesn't match copies of original writings?

Take Easter as an example, why is Easter an error? Easter is the fulfillment of Passover, it's just a word choice.
Any kind of problem you postulate to be in new versions can be found in the KJV, too.

Its only your belief that when they are in the KJV, they are somehow "OK".
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Any kind of problem you postulate to be in new versions can be found in the KJV, too.

Its only your belief that when they are in the KJV, they are somehow "OK".
Compare the 2 translations below, do they say the same? Is one correct and the other in incorrect?

Matthew 4:8 King James Version (KJV)

8 Again, the devil taketh him up into an exceeding high mountain, and sheweth him all the kingdoms of the world, and the glory of them;


Matthew 4:8 New International Version (NIV)

8 Again, the devil took him to a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their splendor.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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Compare the 2 translations below, do they say the same? Is one correct and the other in incorrect?

Matthew 4:8 King James Version (KJV)

8 Again, the devil taketh him up into an exceeding high mountain, and sheweth him all the kingdoms of the world, and the glory of them;


Matthew 4:8 New International Version (NIV)

8 Again, the devil took him to a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their splendor.
When you say "compare 2 translations..." then the goal is to compare them to underlying text, not to each other.

As you said, we are not comparing two doctrines, two teachings, two thoughts, but two translations.

Also, its very likely that on some places KJV will be better translation than NIV. It proves nothing extraordinary.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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When you say "compare 2 translations..." then the goal is to compare them to underlying text, not to each other.

As you said, we are not comparing two doctrines, two teachings, two thoughts, but two translations.

Also, its very likely that on some places KJV will be better translation than NIV. It proves nothing extraordinary.
Also I think Luke doesn't use exceeding in the KJV either... bad example on my part. :)