Someone like yourself, who can so twist the Scriptures to make 2Thess 2v1-12 support a pre-tribulation advent and rapture, when it clearly teaches a POST-tribulation Advent and rapture (of the Church, the Body of Christ); when you come to The Revelation of Jesus Christ and express your interpretation of it you enter a world of pure fantasy!
Well....lets untwist them for you shall we?
https://christinprophecy.org/articles/2-thessalonians-2-3/
"Tommy pointed out that the Greek noun,
apostasia, is used only twice in the New Testament. The other occurrence is in
Acts 21:21 where it states that an accusation was made against Paul that he was “teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake [
apostasia] Moses.”
The word is used in verb form a total of 15 times in the New Testament, and only three of these have anything to do with a departure from the faith (
Luke 8:13,
1 Timothy 4:1, and
Hebrews 3:12). In other settings, the word is used for departing from inquity (
2 Timothy 2:19), departing from ungodly men (
1 Timothy 6:5), departing from the temple (
Luke 2:27), departing from the body (
2 Corinthians 12:8), and departing from persons (
Acts 12:10 and
Luke 4:13).
This insight about the use and meaning of the word was certainly compelling, but the argument Tommy presented that was most convicting to me was his revelation that
the first seven English translations of the Bible rendered the noun, apostasia, as either “departure” or “departing.” They were as follows:1
- The Wycliffe Bible (1384)
- The Tyndale Bible (1526)
- The Coverdale Bible (1535)
- The Cranmer Bible (1539)
- The Great Bible (1540)
- The Beeches Bible (1576)
- The Geneva Bible (1608)
Tommy also noted that the Bible used by the Western world from 400 AD to the 1500s — Jerome’s Latin translation known as “The Vulgate” — rendered
apostasia with the
Latin word, discessio, which means “departure.”
The first translation of the word to mean apostasy in an English Bible did not occur until 1611 when the King James Version was issued. So, why did the King James translators introduce a completely new rendering of the word as “falling away”? The best guess is that they were taking a stab at the false teachings of Catholicism.
One other point Tommy Ice made that I thought was significant is that Paul used a definite article with the word
apostasia. The significance of this is emphasized by Daniel Davey in a thesis he wrote for the Detroit Baptist Theological Seminary:2
Since the Greek language does not need an article to make the noun definite, it becomes clear that with the usage of the article, reference is being made to something in particular.
In 2 Thessalonians 2:3 the word apostasia is prefaced by the definite article which means that Paul is pointing to a particular type of departure clearly known to the Thessalonian church.
In light of this grammatical point, Tommy observed that
“the use of the definite article would support the notion that Paul spoke of a clear, discernable notion.”3 And that notion he had already identified in verse 1 when he stated that he was writing about “our gathering together to Him [Jesus].”
This interpretation also corresponds to the point that Paul makes in verses 6 and 7 where he states that the man of lawlessness will not come until what “restrains” him “is taken out of the way.”
And what it is that restrains evil in the world today? The Holy Spirit working through the Church."