Biblical translation of Torah as English word law
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As far as the Jews are concerned the word "Law" is perfectly acceptable for the Torah, as noted in the Jewish Encyclopedia below:
SCROLL OF THE LAW (Hebrew, "Sefer Torah"):
Every One to Possess a Sefer Torah.
The Pentateuch, written on a scroll of parchment. The Rabbis count among the mandatory precepts incumbent upon every Israelite the obligation to write a copy of the Pentateuch for his personal use. The passage "Now therefore write ye this song for you, and teach it the children of Israel" (Deut. xxxi. 19) is interpreted as referring to the whole Pentateuch, wherein "this song" is included (Sanh. 21b). The king was required to possess a second copy, to be kept near his throne and carried into battle (Deut. xvii. 18; Maimonides, "Yad," Sefer Torah, vii. 1, 2). One who is unable to write the scroll himself should hire a scribe to write it for him; or if he purchases a scroll he should have it examined by a competent Sofer. If a Jew inherits a scroll it is his duty to write or have written another. This scroll he must not sell, even in dire distress, except for the purpose of paying his teacher's fee or of defraying his own marriage expenses (Meg. 27a).
Note: "Sefer" = scroll and "Sofer" = scribe
SCROLL OF THE LAW (Hebrew, "Sefer Torah"):
Every One to Possess a Sefer Torah.
The Pentateuch, written on a scroll of parchment. The Rabbis count among the mandatory precepts incumbent upon every Israelite the obligation to write a copy of the Pentateuch for his personal use. The passage "Now therefore write ye this song for you, and teach it the children of Israel" (Deut. xxxi. 19) is interpreted as referring to the whole Pentateuch, wherein "this song" is included (Sanh. 21b). The king was required to possess a second copy, to be kept near his throne and carried into battle (Deut. xvii. 18; Maimonides, "Yad," Sefer Torah, vii. 1, 2). One who is unable to write the scroll himself should hire a scribe to write it for him; or if he purchases a scroll he should have it examined by a competent Sofer. If a Jew inherits a scroll it is his duty to write or have written another. This scroll he must not sell, even in dire distress, except for the purpose of paying his teacher's fee or of defraying his own marriage expenses (Meg. 27a).
Note: "Sefer" = scroll and "Sofer" = scribe
And why should "the Law" be objectionable, when that is what God calls it? Jesus invariably referred to the Torah as "the Law". And Psalm 119 calls all of the Word of God "the Law of the LORD".
The important thing to note that it is Scripture. Which means that it is given for (1) doctrine, (2) reproof, (3) correction, and (4) instruction in righteousness (2 Tim 3:16,17).
The important thing to note that it is Scripture. Which means that it is given for (1) doctrine, (2) reproof, (3) correction, and (4) instruction in righteousness (2 Tim 3:16,17).
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Possibly by adding. I would offer . "Perfect, complete Torah"
The portion of a law in regard a father as to the letter of the law kills pouring out wrath. The law of the unseen, the law of faith as disciplinarian heals and guides . . .both working together as with the father and Son . The perfect law, two incomplete laws making one perfect Torah. Psalms 19:7-11
The portion of a law in regard a father as to the letter of the law kills pouring out wrath. The law of the unseen, the law of faith as disciplinarian heals and guides . . .both working together as with the father and Son . The perfect law, two incomplete laws making one perfect Torah. Psalms 19:7-11
That is quite obvious, but we are having a discussion in English. While Jesus of Nazareth generally spoke Aramaic, His words are recorded in Greek, and then translated into English.
So let's trace the use of the word "the law" in "the law of Moses" [meaning the Torah or the first five books of the Bible (also known as the Pentateuch)].
And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me. (Luke 24:44 KJV)
Εἶπε δὲ αὐτοῖς, Οὗτοι οἱ λόγοι, οὓς ἐλάλησα πρὸς ὑμᾶς ἔτι ὢν σὺν ὑμῖν, ὅτι δεῖ πληρωθῆναι πάντα τὰ γεγραμμένα ἐν τῷ νόμῳ* Μωσέως καὶ προφήταις καὶ ψαλμοῖς περὶ ἐμοῦ.
*Strong's Concordance (3551)
nomos: that which is assigned, hence usage, law
Original Word: νόμος, ου, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: nomos
Phonetic Spelling: (nom'-os)
Definition: that which is assigned, usage, law
Usage: usage, custom, law; in NT: of law in general, plur: of divine laws; of a force or influence impelling to action; of the Mosaic law; meton: of the books which contain the law, the Pentateuch, the Old Testament scriptures in general.
So whatever Christ said in Aramaic was stated in the Greek as "the Law of Moses". And since there is no authority higher than Christ (who actually wrote the Ten Commandments with His own finger) then that should settle the matter.
It should also be noted here that Christ was putting His stamp of approval on the Hebrew canon (24 books) within the Tanakh. Those were split in several ways to produce 39 books in our OT. But the content is the same.
The Law of Moses = Torah = 5 books
The Prophets = Neviim = 8 books
The Psalms = Ketuvim = 11 books
The Apocrypha was automatically excluded.
So let's trace the use of the word "the law" in "the law of Moses" [meaning the Torah or the first five books of the Bible (also known as the Pentateuch)].
And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me. (Luke 24:44 KJV)
Εἶπε δὲ αὐτοῖς, Οὗτοι οἱ λόγοι, οὓς ἐλάλησα πρὸς ὑμᾶς ἔτι ὢν σὺν ὑμῖν, ὅτι δεῖ πληρωθῆναι πάντα τὰ γεγραμμένα ἐν τῷ νόμῳ* Μωσέως καὶ προφήταις καὶ ψαλμοῖς περὶ ἐμοῦ.
*Strong's Concordance (3551)
nomos: that which is assigned, hence usage, law
Original Word: νόμος, ου, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: nomos
Phonetic Spelling: (nom'-os)
Definition: that which is assigned, usage, law
Usage: usage, custom, law; in NT: of law in general, plur: of divine laws; of a force or influence impelling to action; of the Mosaic law; meton: of the books which contain the law, the Pentateuch, the Old Testament scriptures in general.
So whatever Christ said in Aramaic was stated in the Greek as "the Law of Moses". And since there is no authority higher than Christ (who actually wrote the Ten Commandments with His own finger) then that should settle the matter.
It should also be noted here that Christ was putting His stamp of approval on the Hebrew canon (24 books) within the Tanakh. Those were split in several ways to produce 39 books in our OT. But the content is the same.
The Law of Moses = Torah = 5 books
The Prophets = Neviim = 8 books
The Psalms = Ketuvim = 11 books
The Apocrypha was automatically excluded.
Let us think, just a bit. The language of the Tanakh is Hebrew with an Aramaic word scattered here and there within the text while Ezra and the firsst half of Daniel is written in Hebrew.
When our Lord was in the Temple and when He repeated the words He gave to all the prophetsit was in Hebrew.
Did He speak in Aramaic when teaching the Gospel? Did He teach the Gospel , rather confer the blessing to Abraham in Aramaic? You cannot know.
No man alive today can say yes or no the He ever taught in Aramaic, yet scholars presume, and them obnly some, that He did.
I will not pronounce on this, but perhaps there are intellectuals and/or scholars here who will…………..Try not to be concusive as per facts not known, knowable, or proven. I am not saying anyone is WRONG; NOR rIGHT, BUT MANY HERE DO DWITHOUT UNDERSTANDING...
When our Lord was in the Temple and when He repeated the words He gave to all the prophetsit was in Hebrew.
Did He speak in Aramaic when teaching the Gospel? Did He teach the Gospel , rather confer the blessing to Abraham in Aramaic? You cannot know.
No man alive today can say yes or no the He ever taught in Aramaic, yet scholars presume, and them obnly some, that He did.
I will not pronounce on this, but perhaps there are intellectuals and/or scholars here who will…………..Try not to be concusive as per facts not known, knowable, or proven. I am not saying anyone is WRONG; NOR rIGHT, BUT MANY HERE DO DWITHOUT UNDERSTANDING...
There has been lots of new discoveries of ancient Hebrew documents that disputes the idea that all of Jesus time was in mainly Aramatiac
There are many recent discoveries that show that ancient Hebrew was used during Christ's time much more than they thought it was. All the writings found in the burial boxes used was in Hebrew. The scrolls they used were mostly Hebrew. Luke and Acts, they discovered, was first written in Hebrew, there is a copy found that is in England now. Several of the early histories of the time mention the Hebrew as the language used for these.
Every single person that God gave authority to write NT scripture had Hebrew roots, even Luke. They all learned to think in Hebrew type thinking. Paul certainly wrote in Greek, but he did not think like a Greek, he thought like a Hebrew especially in His training from scripture. To verify this scholars have translated His letters from Greek to Hebrew to see if it would clear up understanding of them and it does.
Man thinks of biblical word law in the same way as the word law as it applies to secular law and God's spiritual law and man's secular law are very different. The word Torah would not fit secular law, and as the word law does not fit spiritual law but is lacking something vital.
trah applies to spiritual law, but would not apply to secular law. I think it is the same way with the word law applying to God's law. It doesn't fit.
There are many recent discoveries that show that ancient Hebrew was used during Christ's time much more than they thought it was. All the writings found in the burial boxes used was in Hebrew. The scrolls they used were mostly Hebrew. Luke and Acts, they discovered, was first written in Hebrew, there is a copy found that is in England now. Several of the early histories of the time mention the Hebrew as the language used for these.
Every single person that God gave authority to write NT scripture had Hebrew roots, even Luke. They all learned to think in Hebrew type thinking. Paul certainly wrote in Greek, but he did not think like a Greek, he thought like a Hebrew especially in His training from scripture. To verify this scholars have translated His letters from Greek to Hebrew to see if it would clear up understanding of them and it does.
Man thinks of biblical word law in the same way as the word law as it applies to secular law and God's spiritual law and man's secular law are very different. The word Torah would not fit secular law, and as the word law does not fit spiritual law but is lacking something vital.
trah applies to spiritual law, but would not apply to secular law. I think it is the same way with the word law applying to God's law. It doesn't fit.
