Who will populate the earth in the 1000 year Reign
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hell hades = by reason of a living suffering .Dead bodies without spirits cannot suffer. And God does not hear the dead. He is a God of the living.
Jonah 2 King James Version (KJV) Then Jonah prayed unto the Lord his God out of the fish's belly, And said, I cried by reason of mine affliction unto the Lord, and he heard me; out of the belly of hell cried I, and thou heardest my voice.
Mathew 26 38-42 Then saith he unto them, My soul is exceeding sorrowful, even unto death: tarry ye here, and watch with me. And he went a little farther, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt. And he cometh unto the disciples, and findeth them asleep, and saith unto Peter, What, could ye not watch with me one hour Watch and pray, that ye enter not into temptation: the spirit indeed is willing, but the flesh is weak. He went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done.
And he came and found them asleep again: for their eyes were heavy. And he left them, and went away again, and prayed the third time, saying the same words. Then cometh he to his disciples, and saith unto them, Sleep on now, and take your rest: behold, the hour is at hand, and the Son of man is betrayed into the hands of sinners.
Ecclesiastes 12:7 Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.
What I hear you saying is (well, one of two possible things, I'm hearing from you):
Either (you are saying) Revelation 19:21's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi] were slain/killed with the sword of the One sitting on the horse having gone forth out of his mouth" took place in His first advent (plz inform us of "how"); OR
(or you are saying) Revelation 19:21's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi] were slain/killed" [a "future" event] has nothing whatsoever to do with Revelation 20:5a's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi] of the dead" [you're saying was a "past event" occurring in His first advent (per your comment re: "chpt 20")] (and despite "context"--that is, disregarding all context and chronology indicators of the overall text, here; or maybe you are even suggesting that Rev19:19,21 ["the rest were slain"] has nothing to do with Rev16:14-16's "Armageddon" and Christ's "return" to the earth in Rev19--occurring yet future to us. Is that it??)
--Rev19:21 - "And the rest [G3062 - loipoi] were killed with the sword of the One sitting on the horse having gone forth out of his mouth. And all the birds were filled with their flesh."
--Rev20:5a "The rest [G3062 - loipoi] of the dead did not live again until the thousand years shall have been completed."
You see absolutely no relation between the two verses ^ ?
So you believe Rev20:5a's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi] of the dead" [coming just 5 verses later] has no relation whatsoever to Rev19:21's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi] were slain/killed"? Is that your view?
These people ("the rest [G3062 - loipoi]" in each of these two verses [5 verses apart], here) have no relation whatsoever, but instead (according to your view) are people who have existed some 2000 yrs apart?? And/or you are seeing the 20:5's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi]" existing throughout the past some 2000 yrs? Rev20:5a "The rest [G3062 - loipoi] of the dead did not live again until the thousand years shall have been completed."
Either (you are saying) Revelation 19:21's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi] were slain/killed with the sword of the One sitting on the horse having gone forth out of his mouth" took place in His first advent (plz inform us of "how"); OR
(or you are saying) Revelation 19:21's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi] were slain/killed" [a "future" event] has nothing whatsoever to do with Revelation 20:5a's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi] of the dead" [you're saying was a "past event" occurring in His first advent (per your comment re: "chpt 20")] (and despite "context"--that is, disregarding all context and chronology indicators of the overall text, here; or maybe you are even suggesting that Rev19:19,21 ["the rest were slain"] has nothing to do with Rev16:14-16's "Armageddon" and Christ's "return" to the earth in Rev19--occurring yet future to us. Is that it??)
--Rev19:21 - "And the rest [G3062 - loipoi] were killed with the sword of the One sitting on the horse having gone forth out of his mouth. And all the birds were filled with their flesh."
--Rev20:5a "The rest [G3062 - loipoi] of the dead did not live again until the thousand years shall have been completed."
You see absolutely no relation between the two verses ^ ?
"TheDivineWatermark said:
Do you believe that Rev19:19,21/16:14-16/20:5 took place "at Christ's first advent" ? [plz see those verses; and note that v.21 says "the remnant WERE SLAIN" (that is, they DIE / are KILLED)]"
Rev19:19/21/*16:14-16/20:5... did this take place at/in His first advent, yes or no?
Pretty easy to answer "yes" or "no". Has it already happened? [note: *"Armageddon"]
Try not to avoid the question.
Do you believe that Rev19:19,21/16:14-16/20:5 took place "at Christ's first advent" ? [plz see those verses; and note that v.21 says "the remnant WERE SLAIN" (that is, they DIE / are KILLED)]"
Rev19:19/21/*16:14-16/20:5... did this take place at/in His first advent, yes or no?
Pretty easy to answer "yes" or "no". Has it already happened? [note: *"Armageddon"]
Try not to avoid the question.
So you believe Rev20:5a's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi] of the dead" [coming just 5 verses later] has no relation whatsoever to Rev19:21's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi] were slain/killed"? Is that your view?
These people ("the rest [G3062 - loipoi]" in each of these two verses [5 verses apart], here) have no relation whatsoever, but instead (according to your view) are people who have existed some 2000 yrs apart?? And/or you are seeing the 20:5's "the rest [G3062 - loipoi]" existing throughout the past some 2000 yrs? Rev20:5a "The rest [G3062 - loipoi] of the dead did not live again until the thousand years shall have been completed."
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Here's what I understand about "the kingdom OF THE heavenS"... for a time during Jesus' earthly ministry it was said "the kingdom OF THE heavenS is at hand" (Matt3:2, Matt4:17, Matt10:7)... but that at some point during Jesus' earthly ministry this ceased being said.
Around Matt15, Jesus is still saying, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel," but note what He'd just responded to his disciples' question of Him in verse 12 (note His response, in part, in v.14) [and note: in chpt 14:10 we see John the Baptist beheaded in the prison, and recall what Jesus had said elsewhere about JtB "*if*" … but here we've seen his rejection]
[quoting old post of mine, and Gaebelein commentary]
"For instance, in the sixth verse [Matthew 10] we read: “Go not off into the way of the Gentiles, and into a city of Samaritans enter ye not; but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel .” This is a limited sphere. They had nothing to do and could have nothing to do with the Gentiles nor with Samaritans. After the death and resurrection of our Lord the Gospel was to be preached, beginning in Jerusalem, in Samaria, to the uttermost parts of the earth. The lost sheep of the house of Israel, that much “spiritualized” phrase, were not Gentiles, nor were they the church, for a church was not and could not be then. Their preaching was only this text: “The Kingdom of the heavens has drawn nigh.” What does it mean? It meant that the promised Kingdom for Israel, and through Israel to the nations, the Kingdom with all its earthly blessings, was about to come. It was heralding the fact of the presence of the King to set up the Kingdom, if His own would have it. Such a preaching of the Kingdom of the heavens is not given now. After the church age closes by the removal of the church from the earth into heaven, as foreshadowed by the vessel which Peter saw coming out of heaven and again received into heaven, then the kingdom will again draw nigh in the person of the returning King and Lord with His saints."
--Gaebelein, Matthew 10 Commentary [found at Bible Hub]
Acts 10:9-16 -
9 On the morrow, as they went on their journey, and drew nigh unto the city, Peter went up upon the housetop to pray about the sixth hour:
10 And he became very hungry, and would have eaten: but while they made ready, he fell into a trance,
11 And saw heaven opened, and a certain vessel descending upon him, as it had been a great sheet knit at the four corners, and let down to the earth:
12 Wherein were all manner of fourfooted beasts of the earth, and wild beasts, and creeping things, and fowls of the air.
13 And there came a voice to him, Rise, Peter; kill, and eat.
14 But Peter said, Not so, Lord; for I have never eaten any thing that is common or unclean.
15 And the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common.
16 This was done thrice: and the vessel was received up again into heaven.
[end quoting that post; bold and underline and brackets mine]
[recall, the word "King" is used only 2 times in all of the epistles, and both of them are "future"... ex: "which IN HIS TIMES He SHALL SHEW [/openly manifest (future tense)], who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords" (this latter phrase used only in Rev19, and in the reverse order in Rev17)]
Around Matt15, Jesus is still saying, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel," but note what He'd just responded to his disciples' question of Him in verse 12 (note His response, in part, in v.14) [and note: in chpt 14:10 we see John the Baptist beheaded in the prison, and recall what Jesus had said elsewhere about JtB
"*if*" … but here we've seen his rejection][quoting old post of mine, and Gaebelein commentary]
"For instance, in the sixth verse [Matthew 10] we read: “Go not off into the way of the Gentiles, and into a city of Samaritans enter ye not; but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel .” This is a limited sphere. They had nothing to do and could have nothing to do with the Gentiles nor with Samaritans. After the death and resurrection of our Lord the Gospel was to be preached, beginning in Jerusalem, in Samaria, to the uttermost parts of the earth. The lost sheep of the house of Israel, that much “spiritualized” phrase, were not Gentiles, nor were they the church, for a church was not and could not be then. Their preaching was only this text: “The Kingdom of the heavens has drawn nigh.” What does it mean? It meant that the promised Kingdom for Israel, and through Israel to the nations, the Kingdom with all its earthly blessings, was about to come. It was heralding the fact of the presence of the King to set up the Kingdom, if His own would have it. Such a preaching of the Kingdom of the heavens is not given now. After the church age closes by the removal of the church from the earth into heaven, as foreshadowed by the vessel which Peter saw coming out of heaven and again received into heaven, then the kingdom will again draw nigh in the person of the returning King and Lord with His saints."
--Gaebelein, Matthew 10 Commentary [found at Bible Hub]
Acts 10:9-16 -
9 On the morrow, as they went on their journey, and drew nigh unto the city, Peter went up upon the housetop to pray about the sixth hour:
10 And he became very hungry, and would have eaten: but while they made ready, he fell into a trance,
11 And saw heaven opened, and a certain vessel descending upon him, as it had been a great sheet knit at the four corners, and let down to the earth:
12 Wherein were all manner of fourfooted beasts of the earth, and wild beasts, and creeping things, and fowls of the air.
13 And there came a voice to him, Rise, Peter; kill, and eat.
14 But Peter said, Not so, Lord; for I have never eaten any thing that is common or unclean.
15 And the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common.
16 This was done thrice: and the vessel was received up again into heaven.
[end quoting that post; bold and underline and brackets mine]
[recall, the word "King" is used only 2 times in all of the epistles, and both of them are "future"... ex: "which IN HIS TIMES He SHALL SHEW [/openly manifest (future tense)], who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords" (this latter phrase used only in Rev19, and in the reverse order in Rev17)]
Here's what I understand about "the kingdom OF THE heavenS"... for a time during Jesus' earthly ministry it was said "the kingdom OF THE heavenS is at hand" (Matt3:2, Matt4:17, Matt10:7)... but that at some point during Jesus' earthly ministry this ceased being said.
Around Matt15, Jesus is still saying, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel," but note what He'd just responded to his disciples' question of Him in verse 12 (note His response, in part, in v.14) [and note: in chpt 14:10 we see John the Baptist beheaded in the prison, and recall what Jesus had said elsewhere about JtB "*if*" … but here we've seen his rejection]
[quoting old post of mine, and Gaebelein commentary]
"For instance, in the sixth verse [Matthew 10] we read: “Go not off into the way of the Gentiles, and into a city of Samaritans enter ye not; but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel .” This is a limited sphere. They had nothing to do and could have nothing to do with the Gentiles nor with Samaritans. After the death and resurrection of our Lord the Gospel was to be preached, beginning in Jerusalem, in Samaria, to the uttermost parts of the earth. The lost sheep of the house of Israel, that much “spiritualized” phrase, were not Gentiles, nor were they the church, for a church was not and could not be then. Their preaching was only this text: “The Kingdom of the heavens has drawn nigh.” What does it mean? It meant that the promised Kingdom for Israel, and through Israel to the nations, the Kingdom with all its earthly blessings, was about to come. It was heralding the fact of the presence of the King to set up the Kingdom, if His own would have it. Such a preaching of the Kingdom of the heavens is not given now. After the church age closes by the removal of the church from the earth into heaven, as foreshadowed by the vessel which Peter saw coming out of heaven and again received into heaven, then the kingdom will again draw nigh in the person of the returning King and Lord with His saints."
--Gaebelein, Matthew 10 Commentary [found at Bible Hub]
Acts 10:9-16 -
9 On the morrow, as they went on their journey, and drew nigh unto the city, Peter went up upon the housetop to pray about the sixth hour:
10 And he became very hungry, and would have eaten: but while they made ready, he fell into a trance,
11 And saw heaven opened, and a certain vessel descending upon him, as it had been a great sheet knit at the four corners, and let down to the earth:
12 Wherein were all manner of fourfooted beasts of the earth, and wild beasts, and creeping things, and fowls of the air.
13 And there came a voice to him, Rise, Peter; kill, and eat.
14 But Peter said, Not so, Lord; for I have never eaten any thing that is common or unclean.
15 And the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common.
16 This was done thrice: and the vessel was received up again into heaven.
[end quoting that post; bold and underline and brackets mine]
[recall, the word "King" is used only 2 times in all of the epistles, and both of them are "future"... ex: "which IN HIS TIMES He SHALL SHEW [/openly manifest (future tense)], who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords" (this latter phrase used only in Rev19, and in the reverse order in Rev17)]
Around Matt15, Jesus is still saying, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel," but note what He'd just responded to his disciples' question of Him in verse 12 (note His response, in part, in v.14) [and note: in chpt 14:10 we see John the Baptist beheaded in the prison, and recall what Jesus had said elsewhere about JtB
"*if*" … but here we've seen his rejection][quoting old post of mine, and Gaebelein commentary]
"For instance, in the sixth verse [Matthew 10] we read: “Go not off into the way of the Gentiles, and into a city of Samaritans enter ye not; but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel .” This is a limited sphere. They had nothing to do and could have nothing to do with the Gentiles nor with Samaritans. After the death and resurrection of our Lord the Gospel was to be preached, beginning in Jerusalem, in Samaria, to the uttermost parts of the earth. The lost sheep of the house of Israel, that much “spiritualized” phrase, were not Gentiles, nor were they the church, for a church was not and could not be then. Their preaching was only this text: “The Kingdom of the heavens has drawn nigh.” What does it mean? It meant that the promised Kingdom for Israel, and through Israel to the nations, the Kingdom with all its earthly blessings, was about to come. It was heralding the fact of the presence of the King to set up the Kingdom, if His own would have it. Such a preaching of the Kingdom of the heavens is not given now. After the church age closes by the removal of the church from the earth into heaven, as foreshadowed by the vessel which Peter saw coming out of heaven and again received into heaven, then the kingdom will again draw nigh in the person of the returning King and Lord with His saints."
--Gaebelein, Matthew 10 Commentary [found at Bible Hub]
Acts 10:9-16 -
9 On the morrow, as they went on their journey, and drew nigh unto the city, Peter went up upon the housetop to pray about the sixth hour:
10 And he became very hungry, and would have eaten: but while they made ready, he fell into a trance,
11 And saw heaven opened, and a certain vessel descending upon him, as it had been a great sheet knit at the four corners, and let down to the earth:
12 Wherein were all manner of fourfooted beasts of the earth, and wild beasts, and creeping things, and fowls of the air.
13 And there came a voice to him, Rise, Peter; kill, and eat.
14 But Peter said, Not so, Lord; for I have never eaten any thing that is common or unclean.
15 And the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common.
16 This was done thrice: and the vessel was received up again into heaven.
[end quoting that post; bold and underline and brackets mine]
[recall, the word "King" is used only 2 times in all of the epistles, and both of them are "future"... ex: "which IN HIS TIMES He SHALL SHEW [/openly manifest (future tense)], who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords" (this latter phrase used only in Rev19, and in the reverse order in Rev17)]
It sounds like you are either deliberately disregarding the SEQUENCE issues regarding Matt22:7 and Matt22:8, or are simply unaware of them.
Tell me, can you see that verse 7 is speaking of the "70ad events" (paralleling both Luke 21:23,20 AND Luke 19:41-44); and then that verse 8's wording of "THEN SAITH HE to his servants" must necessarily FOLLOW verse 7's "70ad events"... and yet, Jesus is up in Heaven during the 70ad events, right?
(I believe this LATER "saith he" [AFTER the 70ad events of v.7] then correlates with Rev1:1's LATER 95ad "[The] Revelation of Jesus Christ WHICH GOD GAVE UNTO HIM [unto Jesus] to SHEW UNTO His servants things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN; which wording parallels the "FUTURE" aspects of the Book, per 1:19c and 4:1 (and 7:3 also), rather than the "things which ARE" (present/NOW aspects in chpts 1-3)]).
This SEQUENCE is shown in a number of places; this being just one of them
Tell me, can you see that verse 7 is speaking of the "70ad events" (paralleling both Luke 21:23,20 AND Luke 19:41-44); and then that verse 8's wording of "THEN SAITH HE to his servants" must necessarily FOLLOW verse 7's "70ad events"... and yet, Jesus is up in Heaven during the 70ad events, right?
(I believe this LATER "saith he" [AFTER the 70ad events of v.7] then correlates with Rev1:1's LATER 95ad "[The] Revelation of Jesus Christ WHICH GOD GAVE UNTO HIM [unto Jesus] to SHEW UNTO His servants things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN; which wording parallels the "FUTURE" aspects of the Book, per 1:19c and 4:1 (and 7:3 also), rather than the "things which ARE" (present/NOW aspects in chpts 1-3)]).
This SEQUENCE is shown in a number of places; this being just one of them
The historic card being played.
According to the historic Church protestants are also heretics. You cant play the history card when those cards are stacked against Bible believing Christians and favor roman catholics. We know many many writings that opposed the roman catholic establishment were burned and wiped out so in reality we dont know if dispensationalism existed until the 1800s.
I can tell you that from what we do know, the ante nicene fathers did believe in dispensations, but not as many. They didnt believe in the pre-trib rapture but they were premillennial. Justin Martyr, Irenaeus, Polycarp (knew John, the guy who wrote Revelation) were all premill.
Name me one ante-nicene church father who wasnt premillenial? It is your view, amillennialism which took time to develop and was only popularized after Augustine came along and reasoned his way through the Scriptures. Augustine was an intelligent man more mighty than me when it comes to brain power, but I believe he made many serious mistakes that were laying the groundwork for what we know today as roman catholicism and its red bearded step-son Calvin(ism)
According to the historic Church protestants are also heretics. You cant play the history card when those cards are stacked against Bible believing Christians and favor roman catholics. We know many many writings that opposed the roman catholic establishment were burned and wiped out so in reality we dont know if dispensationalism existed until the 1800s.
I can tell you that from what we do know, the ante nicene fathers did believe in dispensations, but not as many. They didnt believe in the pre-trib rapture but they were premillennial. Justin Martyr, Irenaeus, Polycarp (knew John, the guy who wrote Revelation) were all premill.
Name me one ante-nicene church father who wasnt premillenial? It is your view, amillennialism which took time to develop and was only popularized after Augustine came along and reasoned his way through the Scriptures. Augustine was an intelligent man more mighty than me when it comes to brain power, but I believe he made many serious mistakes that were laying the groundwork for what we know today as roman catholicism and its red bearded step-son Calvin(ism)
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