If Jesus did not intend for his teachings to apply to all mankind, then why did he pray for all? He clearly prayed to the Father concerning those alive at that time, and all that would follow.
Neither I pray for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word. John 17:20
Clearly Jesus intended for all to receive his teachings, and to do so through the words of the disciples. Another Scripture speaks of the need for Preachers to preach the teachings of Jesus so that people can believe. Jesus went to Gentiles also, and taught them. He taught an entire village of Gentiles when he spoke with the woman at the well.
Neither I pray for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word. John 17:20
Clearly Jesus intended for all to receive his teachings, and to do so through the words of the disciples. Another Scripture speaks of the need for Preachers to preach the teachings of Jesus so that people can believe. Jesus went to Gentiles also, and taught them. He taught an entire village of Gentiles when he spoke with the woman at the well.
Were they also for us?