Was the crucifixion that Jesus endured the worst possible suffering a human could experience?
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My doctrine? I am not sure what you mean by that. Scripture says:
God made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf,
so that in Him we might become the righteousness of God.
I agree with this from gotquestions:
On the cross, our sin was imputed to Christ. That is how Christ paid our sin debt to God. He had no sin in Himself, but our sin was attributed to Him so, as He suffered, He took the just penalty that our sin deserves. At the same time, through faith, Christ’s righteousness is imputed to us. Now we can stand before God sinless, just as Jesus is sinless. We are not righteous in ourselves; rather, Christ’s righteousness is applied to us (because Jesus never ceased to be holy, blameless, and pure, for He is the same yesterday, today and forever).
So, “God made him . . . to be sin for us” means that Jesus, although sinless, was treated as if He were not. Although He remained holy, He was regarded as guilty of all the sin in the world. Through imputation of our sin to Him, He became our substitute and the recipient of God’s judgment against sin. Having saved those who believe, He is now “our righteousness, holiness and redemption.”
Jesus was not forsaken in quoting Psalm 22. In the final analysis, those who refuse
to accept His shed righteous blood as a covering for their sin will be forsaken.
God made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf,
so that in Him we might become the righteousness of God.
I agree with this from gotquestions:
On the cross, our sin was imputed to Christ. That is how Christ paid our sin debt to God. He had no sin in Himself, but our sin was attributed to Him so, as He suffered, He took the just penalty that our sin deserves. At the same time, through faith, Christ’s righteousness is imputed to us. Now we can stand before God sinless, just as Jesus is sinless. We are not righteous in ourselves; rather, Christ’s righteousness is applied to us (because Jesus never ceased to be holy, blameless, and pure, for He is the same yesterday, today and forever).
So, “God made him . . . to be sin for us” means that Jesus, although sinless, was treated as if He were not. Although He remained holy, He was regarded as guilty of all the sin in the world. Through imputation of our sin to Him, He became our substitute and the recipient of God’s judgment against sin. Having saved those who believe, He is now “our righteousness, holiness and redemption.”
Jesus was not forsaken in quoting Psalm 22. In the final analysis, those who refuse
to accept His shed righteous blood as a covering for their sin will be forsaken.
wanting Jesus to become sin beyond what is scriptural is cursing Christ, those who feel inclined to believe this are the ones who put the crown of thorns on his head and who mocked him. there is some very sick doctrine around these days. do i need to be the only one to say it? an idiot like me can see this is wrong, "becoming sin" means to "bear our sins" not literally become sin beyond a certain point, he took this upon himself, he didn't become what he took on. he destroyed it. if he destroyed it, what sense is there to say he has become it? none - only enemy lies. wake up
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Some of us are just reading and understanding 2 Corinthians 5:21 literally.
Christ became sin on the cross, as a noun. He did not become sin on the cross because he did any sin, as a verb.
Because he became sin, we took his perfect righteousness as imputation, some like Derek Prince calls it "the divine exchange". That is how some of us understand what Paul was explaining in Romans 5:12-19.
We were sinners because of Adam's sin
Therefore, we are now righteousness because of Christ's obedience.
Christ became sin on the cross, as a noun. He did not become sin on the cross because he did any sin, as a verb.
Because he became sin, we took his perfect righteousness as imputation, some like Derek Prince calls it "the divine exchange". That is how some of us understand what Paul was explaining in Romans 5:12-19.
We were sinners because of Adam's sin
Therefore, we are now righteousness because of Christ's obedience.
I do understand that there are people who love to interpret sin as "sin offering", that is what they also did with the word "sin" that God spoke to Cain in Genesis 4:7.
I am fine actually, they could be correct. It is non-salvific issue anyway, so I will take Paul's advice there (Romans 14:5) on such matters.
For me I prefer to understand the KJV literally instead of trying to substitute other words for it.
I am fine actually, they could be correct. It is non-salvific issue anyway, so I will take Paul's advice there (Romans 14:5) on such matters.
For me I prefer to understand the KJV literally instead of trying to substitute other words for it.
To me, its a simple understanding Romans 5:12-19.
The first Adam became sin (noun) thru his disobedience (verb), condemning all of us to be sin (noun)
The final Adam became our sin (noun), thru his obedience at the cross (verb), giving all of us the opportunity to take his righteousness (noun) in exchange
So if Christ did not become sin at the cross (noun), we could not become righteous (noun).
The first Adam became sin (noun) thru his disobedience (verb), condemning all of us to be sin (noun)
The final Adam became our sin (noun), thru his obedience at the cross (verb), giving all of us the opportunity to take his righteousness (noun) in exchange
So if Christ did not become sin at the cross (noun), we could not become righteous (noun).
Then let me ask you how you understand Romans 5:13-14
Between Adam to Moses, there was no further commandment given by God, other than the one given to Adam.
How did Isaac of Genesis, for example, end up also becoming sin and dying, even when sin was not imputed unto him, because there was no law given?
Between Adam to Moses, there was no further commandment given by God, other than the one given to Adam.
How did Isaac of Genesis, for example, end up also becoming sin and dying, even when sin was not imputed unto him, because there was no law given?