How the Pre-Trib Rapture Became Popular in the Modern Church

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Aug 20, 2021
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You've made a Biblical claim, not a Biblical argument. No verse contradicts any other verse, meaning the way they should be translated has to be consistent with all other verses.
One way you can identify the correct position of a given principle is by considering the verses that give a position on the matter, and also happens to use Greek/Hebrew verbiage that is not ambiguous.
u confuse god with the book = bible: One bible read thou shall commit adultery..until they found the mistake.Bible is
bible God is God it was a king James version
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
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You've made a Biblical claim, not a Biblical argument.
A Biblical claim and a Biblical argument are same thing.

The word Ra means evil most of time it's used. It's correctly translated every single time.
 
Aug 20, 2021
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How so? I didn't mention God in my previous post.
Ecc 10:19 money answereth all things. vs god is the answer.. [No verse contradicts any other verse,] well no not true..and that's on purpose..from god..makes us think struggle...also there is typos an others kinds of Mistakes in different kinds in bibles.Its god spirit that does not make mistakes.
 

Diakonos

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Jan 19, 2019
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Anacortes, WA
Ecc 10:19 money answereth all things. vs god is the answer.. [No verse contradicts any other verse,] well no not true..and that's on purpose..from god..makes us think struggle...also there is typos an others kinds of Mistakes in different kinds in bibles.Its god spirit that does not make mistakes.
You haven't demonstrated a contradiction. Do you think Scripture contradicts itself?

"The law of the LORD is perfect, restoring the soul" (Ps 19:7)
 

ewq1938

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Oct 18, 2018
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What do you mean by this? Can you give some examples?
There is a verse that speaks of "sottish children" which isn't a word that is commonly known or used anymore but it means "foolish".

Newer translations do not use the word sottish. There's a lot more but this is the only one I recall ATM.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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What I read Nehemiah to be intending here is, that the word "parousia" is used in BOTH CONTEXTS of the time surrounding when we are "caught up / raptured" (TO the meeting of the Lord IN THE AIR--WHERE His "presence" WILL BE at that point) AND [used also] at the time surrounding His Second Coming to the earth, though being at distinct time-slots (due to CONTEXT, where each is used)
Again, where is the evidence that when Paul writes of the parousia, he is writing of two separate events? You keep ASSUMING that is the case. Assuming that is the case seems to be the basis of pre-trib.

Arguing that 'day' can refer to a time period does not prove that there are two parousia's.

Also, the caps and brackets, which you apparently use for emphasis make your posts hard to read. I tend to jump over them because of the irritating orthography. Caps interfere with sight-word vocabulary. (I have a theory that some lawyers use it, not for emphasis, but to keep us from reading certain parts of contracts.)
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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I said the CONTEXT refers to it.

The CONTEXT of the verses you pointed out, indeed uses the term (which you are suggesting does not relate to your verses. I say it DOES because of "CONTEXT").


So, what I said (in a post relating to this--maybe not in the post directly responding to yours) was this (boiled down here):
Can you stop shouting with the caps, please? Your posts are hard to read.

You should consider that if I Thessalonians 4 indicates that events happen at the same time, that this is evidence against your argument that they are long and drawn out.

--in scripture, in contexts where the phrases "THE DAY OF THE LORD" and "IN THAT DAY" are used in proximity, they are referring to THE SAME TIME-PERIOD
[and 2Th 1 & 2Th 2--these two chpts--also use these phrases... IN the SAME CONTEXT that Paul is covering in these TWO CHPTS--Please check out the Greek phrasing]
If you disagree with this statement (in bold ^ ), please explain why you disagree
You would have to be more specific-- and not litter the message with bolds, caps, and underlines so I can understand what you are saying.

I see no reason from scripture to think the parousia and rapture occur at the beginning of the tribulation. If one argued that Christ and the saints would be up in the air, 'present' for seven years, maybe that could work, but I see no reason to believe that.

--Paul, in 1Th5:2-3, states that "THE DAY OF THE LORD" will "ARRIVE" ['so COMETH'] AS [IN THE MANNER OF]... (--->)... "EXACTLY AS / INDEED JUST AS" LABOR-PANG [SINGULAR] (COMES UPON) a woman-with-child... that is, UNEXPECTED or SUDDEN... This is NOT talking about way far into labor when the baby is about to come out, but the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR<--Paul uses the SINGULAR of the SAME TERM Jesus used in the PLURAL...
Why would Paul write this if the saints weren't going to experience it, if they were going to be raptured out right when it started?


I Thessalonians 5
1But of the times and the seasons, brethren, ye have no need that I write unto you.
2 For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.
3 For when they shall say, Peace and safety; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child; and they shall not escape.
4 But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief.
Paul and Jesus are referring to the SAME THING! / SAME POINT-IN-TIME... its ARRIVAL!!! (and "the beginning of birth PANGS [PLURAL]" Jesus spoke of are EQUIVALENT the "SEALS" at the START of the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" time-period [Rev1:1 / 1:19c /4:1--COMPARE the wording of the Greek], which is "what things must take place AFTER THESE [after "the things WHICH ARE" of Rev2-3, which are NOT said are "things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" by contrast!]
The rapture occurs at the parousia. This can be translated, in an oversimplified way, perhaps, as 'presence.' Again, if you think Jesus and the saints in the sky in the clouds, that might work, but it doesn't say that.
 
Aug 2, 2021
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What I said is that 1Th4&5 and 2Th1&2 are IN PERFECT AGREEMENT.

If you are saying I suggested otherwise [as in, "redo/correction"], you've not read my post/posts carefully.
IF, you accept that the same author (the Holy Spirit speaking through the Apostle Paul) is saying the SAME Second Coming
in 1 Thessalonians as in 2 Thessalonians - then you are on the Right Path.

1 Thessalonians 4: 13-18

Brothers, we do not want you to be uninformed about those who sleep in death, so that you will not grieve like the rest, who are without hope. For since we believe that Jesus died and rose again, we also believe that God will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in Him.
By the word of the Lord, we declare to you that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who have fallen asleep. For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a loud command, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God, and the dead in Christ will be the first to rise. After that, we who are alive and remain will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will always be with the Lord.
Therefore encourage one another with these words.

The Apostle Paul pens a 'Second' letter to inform His Church at Thessalonica ( and us) with irrefutable detail on the Second Coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.
Paul writes this 'Second' time to correct false reports/doctrines(pre-trib) and gives to Thess and us more detail/info - again on the Second Coming of Christ.
Therefore, His first letter will be the SAME as the Second Letter but with more detail.

Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to Him, we ask you, brothers, not to be easily disconcerted or alarmed by any spirit or message or letter seeming to be from us, alleging that the Day of the Lord has already come. Let no one deceive you in any way, for it will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness—the son of destruction—is revealed. He will oppose and exalt himself above every so-called god or object of worship. So he will seat himself in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God.

SAME message as in 1 Thess = His Second Coming and our "being gathered together in Him".

2 Thess ch 2, same author(the Holy Spirit) with more detail = "our being gathered together in Him....will not come until..."

Until when??? = "until the rebellion occurs and man of lawlessness, the son of destruction is revealed."

The Holy Spirit condemns the lie of pre-trib rapture = "alleging that the Day of the Lord has already come."
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Aug 3, 2018
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The Holy Spirit condemns the lie of pre-trib rapture = "alleging that the Day of the Lord has already come."
Correct me if I'm mistaken about your view ^ here... Are you saying you believe that the word "Rapture" equals the phrase "the Day of the Lord"??



What I am saying it that these ^ are entirely distinct things:


--our "Rapture" is when WE are "CAUGHT UP / SNATCHed" ..."TO the meeting of the Lord IN THE AIR" ("so shall we ever be 'G4862 - UNIONed-with' the Lord"--i.e. in this manner... IOW, this is "how it's goin down"! / how it will take place: the "UNIONed-with" thing ;) );


--"the Day of the Lord" is ONLY ever located ON THE EARTH (and will unfold over time, in which MUCH will transpire)



These two are not to be equated.


I'm not certain whether you intend to equate them, however. Do you??
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Aug 3, 2018
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^ P.S. what the false conveyors of 2Th2:2 were [or could potentially ever be] saying is, "that the day of the Lord is present / is already here [perfect indicative]"

They were saying not a word about "Rapture" however!


Paul does not say that they were saying anything about "Rapture" (stick with what the text is telling us he said about what it was they were purporting--not what you IMAGINE he said they were purporting).




[the two terms / phrases are NOT equated]
 
Aug 2, 2021
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Correct me if I'm mistaken about your view ^ here... Are you saying you believe that the word "Rapture" equals the phrase "the Day of the Lord"??


What I am saying it that these ^ are entirely distinct things:

--our "Rapture" is when WE are "CAUGHT UP / SNATCHed" ..."TO the meeting of the Lord IN THE AIR" ("so shall we ever be 'G4862 - UNIONed-with' the Lord"--i.e. in this manner... IOW, this is "how it's goin down"! / how it will take place: the "UNIONed-with" thing ;) );

--"the Day of the Lord" is ONLY ever located ON THE EARTH (and will unfold over time, in which MUCH will transpire)



These two are not to be equated.


I'm not certain whether you intend to equate them, however. Do you??
So, what i said of you is true - you do not bow the knee to Scripture - The WORD which was God in the beginning and became flesh.

You do not adhere to the word of the Lord in 1 Thessalonians agrees with 2 Thess agrees with 1 John 2:18 agrees with the Gospels agrees with Revelation of our Lord Jesus Christ.

His Second Coming takes place first in the AIR - Matt 24:30-31 agrees with Acts 1:9 agrees with 1 Thess & 2 Thess

After our Lord consummates the First Resurrection then after that those who remain will be "caught up" and "gathered together unto Him" in the Air/Clouds. This is His Second Coming TRUTH 101

Further along on that Day comes His Judgement upon the wicked/ungodly/man of sin - 2 Thessalonians ch 2

Truth written for His Children - not for adults and the wisdom of men.
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
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So, what i said of you is true
You've totally ignored my question (and I'm beginning to suspect why... :rolleyes: )


Are you EQUATING the terms "Rapture" and "the Day of the Lord"??


Simple question.





Are you suggesting that what Paul is telling the Thessalonians about what the false conveyors were purporting had anything to do with "Rapture" (rather than what the TEXT of verse 2 TELLS US it was about: "[purporting] that the DOTL is present / is already here")






[for the readers: "rapture /snatch" will occur in a relatively minimal amount of time (our movement to the "IN THE AIR" thing);
"the Day of the Lord" (all told) INCLUDES all three of the following:
1)--the 7 yr trib/"in quickness [noun]" upon the earth (the "IN THE NIGHT / DARK / DARKNESS" aspect OF it-1Th5:2-3);
2)--His Second Coming to the earth (the "SUN of righteousness ARISE" aspect OF it);
3)-- AND the earthly Millennial Kingdom for 1000 years (the "reign... GLORIOUSLY" aspect OF it); ALL THREE ASPECTS are "the DOTL"...
--it is not merely "a singular 24-hr day," nor occurring in a singular moment of time (as our Rapture will occur!) These two terms / phrases are NOT equated]
 
Mar 4, 2020
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How the Pre-Trib Rapture Became Popular in the Modern Church
People trusted their pastors and preacher without studying the word of God themselves. People got complacent, believing it so much easier to just come to church, warm the pews, and believe whatever they're told. The pastors were deceived primarily by a theologian named John Darby who popularized the pre-trib rapture in the later 1800's. Now it's 2021, allegedly, and we're still trying to fix the mess Darby made.
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
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If one argued that Christ and the saints would be up in the air, 'present' for seven years, maybe that could work, but I see no reason to believe that.
I never stated that the "IN THE REVELATION OF the Lord Jesus from heaven with His mighty angels in flaming fire [like Lam2:3] INFLICTING VENGEANCE ON those that..." (over the course of SOME TIME, not merely the 24-hr day of His return) takes place and unfolds from His position or "presence" IN THE AIR. Nope. I didn't say or suggest that. = )








[in the same way that Lam2:1-7 is describing events occurring over some time, also]