How the Pre-Trib Rapture Became Popular in the Modern Church

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
Aug 2, 2021
7,317
2,048
113
Okay... I thought you WERE referring to me, since it had been the content of *my* post that ewq was speaking to specifically, there.

Thanks for clarifying. = )
Your Good Brother, we both sit back and analyze which is a commandment for us = study.
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
2,113
113
So he spins it and the wedding supper in heaven.
To address your other [long-ago] post (I can't keep up the pace of this thread :D ), where you'd said it must be "the marriage CHAMBER" because it has a DOOR ("shut"-action)...

Well, to that point (I'd been meaning to address), the word in this Matthew 25:10 text "G1062" is the SAME Greek word used in the following verse:

--Matthew 22:10 - "G1062" - https://biblehub.com/text/matthew/22-10.htm ... and note that THIS is NOT "the marriage CHAMBER" (where the Bride & Groom are to be when it pertains to the "MARRIAGE" ITSELF / UNIONed-with thing, i.e. ALONE TOGETHER ;) ).






These verses [/passages] are speaking to "the wedding FEAST / SUPPER / FESTIVITIES" (not the "MARRIAGE" itself, pertaining SOLELY TO "the Bride / Wife [SINGULAR]" and the "Bridegroom" [singular]" and which WILL take place UP THERE... but "the wedding FEAST / SUPPER" is the EARTHLY MK age [at least its inauguration])
 
Mar 4, 2020
8,614
3,691
113
No it isn't.

A cpl points to consider (as to why):

--the question they asked Him in v.3 was BASED on what He'd ALREADY talked with them about in Matthew 13:24,30,39,40,49-50 regarding "the END [singular] of the AGE [singular]" (and so, "the AGE [singular] TO COME" [connected with earth-time, for lack of a better word atm] which He'd already just spoken to them about at that juncture, in the previous chpt, is what follows that); Jesus's response to their Q of Him in v.3 is contained in both chpts (24-25), so "the Sheep" and "goat" judgment/separation pertains to THAT (who will ENTER the MK age [in mortal bodies; and "saints" only will ENTER];

--Matthew 25:31-34 [v.31 specifically] parallels Matthew 19:28 (said to "the 12") "in the regeneration WHEN the Son of man shall sit in the throne of His glory [see Matt25:31], ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones judgING the twelve tribes of Israel" (this is the role given to "the 12" IN the promised and prophesied EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom age); which verse parallels also Luke 22:30,16,18
Why do the goats go to the lake of fire after their judgment, then?
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
2,113
113
^:D You guys crack me up.

Why do the goats go to the lake of fire after their judgment, then?
I'll try to explain (give me the full five minutes to edit this post, for me to finish this point :D ):

Would you agree that vv.41 and 46 go together (same effect / outcome / end), right?

Consider: the word in v.41 "G4198" - "depart / go / travel" ("DEPART [G4198] from Me...") is the same word used in Matt2:20 where it says, "go / depart / travel [G4198] unto the land of Israel, for have died those seeking the life of the Child"... They were to "DEPART / TRAVEL / GO UNTO"... which required them to take a certain path getting them to such a destination (but they would not immediately be "zapped" to there)
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
2,113
113
"DEPART [G4198] from Me UNTO the lake of fire..." is the SENTENCE pronounced at that point in time... and these "GO AWAY UNTO eternal punishment" (which starts immediately upon that pronouncement; They DO NOT ENTER the MK age; Instead, "hell" is their immediate destination... "the lake of fire" their ultimate destination, once "the DEAD" [when "Death and Hell/Hades GAVE UP the dead..."] will stand before the GWTj; i.e. the SENTENCE is not ever "reversed"
 
Mar 4, 2020
8,614
3,691
113
^:D You guys crack me up.



I'll try to explain (give me the full five minutes to edit this post, for me to finish this point :D ):

Would you agree that vv.41 and 46 go together (same effect / outcome / end), right?

Consider: the word in v.41 "G4198" - "depart / go / travel" ("DEPART [G4198] from Me...") is the same word used in Matt2:20 where it says, "go / depart / travel [G4198] unto the land of Israel, for have died those seeking the life of the Child"... They were to "DEPART / TRAVEL / GO UNTO"... which required them to take a certain path getting them to such a destination (but they would not immediately be "zapped" to there)
When the king said "Depart from me into the eternal fire..." what makes you think they would obey that command? It says nothing about being forced or escorted to a place of eternal fire; they're just told to depart and go there. For all we can see from those standalone verses, maybe they said "No" then went home.

Should we assume the King has a procedure in place to make sure His judgement is seen through to the end? That seems like a fair assumption.

The only method of going to the eternal fire (the lake of fire) that the Bible speaks of is being cast into the lake of fire or being thrown there. See Revelation 19:20 and Revelation 20:15.

So the method of departing to travel to the lake of fire is by being thrown there. Do you know how fast God can throw someone? He can throw someone with perfect instancy anywhere He wants without delay.

Matthew 25, the sheep and goat judgement, is definitely the GWTJ.
 

Laura798

Well-known member
Jun 6, 2020
1,716
593
113
Dear Sister = YES and AMEN to Isaiah 9:6

YES and AMEN to "this prophecy indicates that the Kingdom is established at the incarnation and it is established 'from this time forth and forevermore'."

JESUS, KING of kings and LORD of lords is reigning NOW = TODAY = in the hearts of His People = Us who know & love Him

A Literal 1,000 Years had a Literal meaning from God since Genesis but man fell short of that God's Glory and could not fulfill it.

When God created everything HE said it was GOOD.
Sin changed that, therefore that GOOD Literal 1,000 Year walk with God, no man could fulfill.

We see this in Genesis where men lived upwards of 300, 400, 600, 700, 800 and even 900 Literal Years.

GOD will not let satan and sin be victorious. BEHOLD, HE makes ALL things NEW.

Not only will the Redeemed walk with GOD for 1,000 literal years buy he will also Rule & Reign with CHRIST the LORD.

Dear Sister, this is God's Promise to His Redeemed, do not fight against the Promise of God as religious men always do.
You said/do not fight against the Promise of God as religious men always do.
not sure you mean- “as religious men alway do”im just standing up to what i believe is an incorrect interpretation of scripture.
 

Laura798

Well-known member
Jun 6, 2020
1,716
593
113
i accept and embrace that Christ is reigning and ruling right now and that His Second Coming is part of the Plan and Mystery of God,
that HE foretold to the Prophets, the Apostles and in His Revelation to us.

i accept and recognize the symbolism in Revelation where it is placed and also that which He says is Literal” QUOTE
David you said "which He says is Literal -

Nowhere does Christ tell us what is literal vs figurative — if the angel does not explain then since it is vision we should understand it as a representative of something else. ages of people cant compare to the symbolic language of Revelation. Again we test scripture against other scripture. nowhere else in the bible is the 1000 year reign mentioned. We know immediately after Christ comes the present w and earth are destroyed along with the unbelievers. only the righteous believers will be left to live in the new heavens and earth with God.
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
2,113
113
You seem to be suggesting that - if there is 7 years between a 'rapture' and the 'Second Coming' (pre-trib view; separate events) - there will be people who "live through" to the Millenium - but that - if there is only [say] 7 minutes between those same two 'events' (post-trib view; same event) - no one will "live through" to the Millenium.

What??? o_O
Are you saying that the "7 Vials" (in which you believe are the only things containing "the wrath of God") unfold upon the earth in only "7 minutes" (or even within "one singular 24-hr day")?



Another question, where it says (in 16:14,16 and ESPECIALLY in 19:19) [where John saw] "...and the kings of the earth, and their armies, gathered together TO MAKE WAR AGAINST Him that sat on the horse, AND AGAINST His army"... is it your understanding that these "kings of the earth, and their armies" (esp. in view of what 16:14,16 says) are cognizant of the fact that they are going "TO WAR [AGAINST]," at least, against something [or someones]...? (iow, are they aware they are headed for the purpose of warring against, or are they simply following the direction of "the spirits of devils" without their really being cognizant of their going "TO WAR AGAINST" something [or someones in particular... but who?? from their perspective]... according to how you're seeing this? Just wondering (... if you can grasp what I'm endeavoring to convey here :D )
 
Aug 2, 2021
7,317
2,048
113
Dear Sister = YES and AMEN to Isaiah 9:6

YES and AMEN to "this prophecy indicates that the Kingdom is established at the incarnation and it is established 'from this time forth and forevermore'."

JESUS, KING of kings and LORD of lords is reigning NOW = TODAY = in the hearts of His People = Us who know & love Him

A Literal 1,000 Years had a Literal meaning from God since Genesis but man fell short of that God's Glory and could not fulfill it.

When God created everything HE said it was GOOD.
Sin changed that, therefore that GOOD Literal 1,000 Year walk with God, no man could fulfill.

We see this in Genesis where men lived upwards of 300, 400, 600, 700, 800 and even 900 Literal Years.

GOD will not let satan and sin be victorious. BEHOLD, HE makes ALL things NEW.

Not only will the Redeemed walk with GOD for 1,000 literal years buy he will also Rule & Reign with CHRIST the LORD.

Dear Sister, this is God's Promise to His Redeemed, do not fight against the Promise of God as religious men always do.






Reply

Report
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
2,113
113
Not only will the Redeemed walk with GOD for 1,000 literal years buy he will also Rule & Reign with CHRIST the LORD.
DavidTree, was there a time in the not too distant past when you hadn't accepted the fact there will be a literal "1000 year reign" commencing upon His return to the earth (Rev19), OR... am I confusing you with another poster (back then, not terribly long ago, from what I vaguely recall)?? I'm asking, too, because I've noticed sometimes you've "LIKED" posts made by others who are not writing in agreement with the literal 1000-yr MK age (future). So that kinda confused me (and made it unclear to me, your view, for certain).

You don't have to respond if you don't care to... I was just wondering (...AND wondering if my foggy memory is even remotely recalling such a thing correctly. :D )
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
2,113
113
When the king said "Depart from me into the eternal fire..." what makes you think they would obey that command? It says nothing about being forced or escorted to a place of eternal fire; they're just told to depart and go there. For all we can see from those standalone verses, maybe they said "No" then went home.

Should we assume the King has a procedure in place to make sure His judgement is seen through to the end? That seems like a fair assumption.
Their first stop is "death" and the location is "hell" (these are immediate).

That eventually takes them [later] to the GWTj, when "Death" and "Hell / Hades" GAVE UP the dead which were in them.

I'm not saying that Jesus' pronouncement were merely "words" without power [/effect]," no. (As though they could choose to go against His words and do whatever they want to do, like go home, like you say.)

The only method of going to the eternal fire (the lake of fire) that the Bible speaks of is being cast into the lake of fire or being thrown there. See Revelation 19:20 and Revelation 20:15.

So the method of departing to travel to the lake of fire is by being thrown there. Do you know how fast God can throw someone? He can throw someone with perfect instancy anywhere He wants without delay.
Right, but this will be AFTER "DEATH" and "HELL / HADES" GAVE UP the dead which were in them (which takes place at the LATER GWTj point in the chronology). What takes place in Matthew 25:41 is the "DEPART [G4198 - travel] from [apo - away from] Me... UNTO..." (but "death" and "hell / hades" is the first stop on that journey; and both the "death" / "hell/hades" AND "the lake of fire" are components of what v.46 speaks of: "[go away unto] ETERNAL PUNISHMENT" (i.e. the SENTENCE is never "reversed"; meaning, once the lost experience "death" and "hell / hades," there is NO second chance to "reverse" this)

Matthew 25, the sheep and goat judgement, is definitely the GWTJ.
No, they were not asking Him ANYTHING regarding "the end of THE AGE [SINGULAR] TO COME"...

... but rather, they were asking Him (v.3) re: "the end [singular] of the age [singular]" (which He had ALREADY spoken to them about in Matt13:24,30,39,40,49-50, which is FOLLOWED BY "the age [singular] TO COME" [aka the earthly MK age--connected with earth-time as we know it--so "1000 YEARS"... and in EVERY case in Scripture where the word "YEARS" is used with a number, it MEANS "THAT MANY *years*"--that is, the writer wants the reader to picture "THAT MANY YEARS" in their mind when they read the text])
 

Laura798

Well-known member
Jun 6, 2020
1,716
593
113
Let me see if I can explain it to where you can see my point. I know it's difficult for to see it being a post-trib believer.

Let me say this first. If there is only one resurrection at or around the Second Coming, all the saved and those left alive who are saved. they are all translated as Paul said, meaning they will all receive glorified bodies. None of the saved will be able to reproduce during the 1000 years reign. The lost that are alive at the Second coming will not be allowed into this 1000 years-- per Matt. 25:31-46.

This makes it impossible for children to born during the 1000 years.

Now let's look at the pre-trib view.

At any time the rapture that Paul spoke of could take place. This is what the Christian is to be ready for. When this takes place, all the saints in the grave from the beginning of time will be resurrected along with all the saints alive at that time. These are the Church saints.

They meet the Lord in the air and go to be with Him in their glorified bodies. Now the anti-christ comes and the saved are gone and the Holy Spirit (the restrainer) is taken out of the way, so the anti-christ has his way on this earth for 7 years.

During the 7 years of tribulation most of the world will die, many of them will refuse the mark of the beast and be saved, untold millions, and of course many will die lost. At the Second Coming when Jesus comes to save Israel from being completely destroyed by the anti-christ, these tribulation saints are resurrected, this is the resurrection of Rev. 20 and only those saved during the tribulation, with the Church saints already being raptured some 7 years before.

In this theory, the saved who are still alive at the Second Coming are NOT translated, they will enter the 1000 reign and repopulate the earth with natural bodies.

Do you see that at the Second Coming in the post-trib view, all are translated, but the pre-trib view they are not?
Charlie were are you seeing all this in Scripture? Please share book and verses— this is all news to me. Is this some extrabilblical source?
 
Aug 2, 2021
7,317
2,048
113
"DEPART [G4198] from Me UNTO the lake of fire..." is the SENTENCE pronounced at that point in time... and these "GO AWAY UNTO eternal punishment" (which starts immediately upon that pronouncement; They DO NOT ENTER the MK age; Instead, "hell" is their immediate destination... "the lake of fire" their ultimate destination, once "the DEAD" [when "Death and Hell/Hades GAVE UP the dead..."] will stand before the GWTj; i.e. the SENTENCE is not ever "reversed"
They do enter the MK Era but not as still living breathing flesh n blood people.
The Goats will be those who are resurrected for the GWT Judgment.
No one goes into the Lake of Fire until GWT, except for Two Individuals = the Antichrist and the False Prophet

Then the beast was captured, and with him the false prophet who worked signs in his presence, by which he deceived those who received the mark of the beast and those who worshiped his image.
These two were cast alive into the lake of fire burning with brimstone.

"And the devil who had deceived them was thrown into the lake of fire and sulfur,
into which the beast and the false prophet had already been thrown.
There they will be tormented day and night forever and ever."
 
Aug 2, 2021
7,317
2,048
113
DavidTree, was there a time in the not too distant past when you hadn't accepted the fact there will be a literal "1000 year reign" commencing upon His return to the earth (Rev19), OR... am I confusing you with another poster (back then, not terribly long ago, from what I vaguely recall)?? I'm asking, too, because I've noticed sometimes you've "LIKED" posts made by others who are not writing in agreement with the literal 1000-yr MK age (future). So that kinda confused me (and made it unclear to me, your view, for certain).

You don't have to respond if you don't care to... I was just wondering (...AND wondering if my foggy memory is even remotely recalling such a thing correctly. :D )
Thank you for asking as that ws not me and would be another Poster.

You will see me agreeing with those who say that Christ is King now and Ruling now in all of His Redeemed.
 

Laura798

Well-known member
Jun 6, 2020
1,716
593
113
Let me see if I can explain it to where you can see my point. I know it's difficult for to see it being a post-trib believer.

Let me say this first. If there is only one resurrection at or around the Second Coming, all the saved and those left alive who are saved. they are all translated as Paul said, meaning they will all receive glorified bodies. None of the saved will be able to reproduce during the 1000 years reign. The lost that are alive at the Second coming will not be allowed into this 1000 years-- per Matt. 25:31-46.

This makes it impossible for children to born during the 1000 years.

Now let's look at the pre-trib view.

At any time the rapture that Paul spoke of could take place. This is what the Christian is to be ready for. When this takes place, all the saints in the grave from the beginning of time will be resurrected along with all the saints alive at that time. These are the Church saints.

They meet the Lord in the air and go to be with Him in their glorified bodies. Now the anti-christ comes and the saved are gone and the Holy Spirit (the restrainer) is taken out of the way, so the anti-christ has his way on this earth for 7 years.

During the 7 years of tribulation most of the world will die, many of them will refuse the mark of the beast and be saved, untold millions, and of course many will die lost. At the Second Coming when Jesus comes to save Israel from being completely destroyed by the anti-christ, these tribulation saints are resurrected, this is the resurrection of Rev. 20 and only those saved during the tribulation, with the Church saints already being raptured some 7 years before.

In this theory, the saved who are still alive at the Second Coming are NOT translated, they will enter the 1000 reign and repopulate the earth with natural bodies.

Do you see that at the Second Coming in the post-trib view, all are translated, but the pre-trib view they are not?
Quite alot of writing Charlie, however no scripture to back up your theories— theories are not Truth. Perplexed, befuddled and gobsmacked is all i can say….
 
Aug 2, 2021
7,317
2,048
113
DavidTree, was there a time in the not too distant past when you hadn't accepted the fact there will be a literal "1000 year reign" commencing upon His return to the earth (Rev19), OR... am I confusing you with another poster (back then, not terribly long ago, from what I vaguely recall)?? I'm asking, too, because I've noticed sometimes you've "LIKED" posts made by others who are not writing in agreement with the literal 1000-yr MK age (future). So that kinda confused me (and made it unclear to me, your view, for certain).

You don't have to respond if you don't care to... I was just wondering (...AND wondering if my foggy memory is even remotely recalling such a thing correctly. :D )
i will sometimes give 'thumbs up' to Posts that i am not in full agreement with but where there is beautiful God Glorifying Truth in the Post that rises above some minor errors.

Since the Thousand Year Reign does not occur until His Second Coming it does not change His Second Coming unless they deny/alter that with other error.

So, maybe that is what you have seen connected to me.