We disagree on the implications of the infinitive verb. While it can mean incomplete actions, such as a mortgage payment made to fulfill the requirements of a mortgage, a payment made to fulfill the mortgage is different; it indicates completion. So too, Jesus' words indicate completion, not "partial payment". One would only conclude the 'partial payment' idea if one already believed that concept.
The unrepentant Jews who survived this holocaust were led away into slavery; that was a specific event, though it may have taken weeks to complete. As for the "trodding down", it need only have begun. I don't agree that event needed to be completed for Jesus' words to be valid; His use of "until" allows the completion to take place over a longer period. Again, it seems that you are forcing an a priori interpretation onto the text.
That's all circular and a priori argumentation.
I don't agree that Revelation was penned in 95. I believe that John wrote it closer to 65.
22:7 certainly appears to describe the events of 70. However, 22:8 leads to 9, wherein the servants are sent out to spread the good news. I don't see how this puts any of the other events described in ch. 24 out of sequence.
If, as I believe, John wrote Revelation in about 65, the temporal indicators in ch. 1 fit perfectly with the events of 66-70, and there is no problem with the sequence of events in 24.
Again, this is circular reasoning.
Likewise; I appreciate your explanation.
The unrepentant Jews who survived this holocaust were led away into slavery; that was a specific event, though it may have taken weeks to complete. As for the "trodding down", it need only have begun. I don't agree that event needed to be completed for Jesus' words to be valid; His use of "until" allows the completion to take place over a longer period. Again, it seems that you are forcing an a priori interpretation onto the text.
That's all circular and a priori argumentation.
I don't agree that Revelation was penned in 95. I believe that John wrote it closer to 65.
22:7 certainly appears to describe the events of 70. However, 22:8 leads to 9, wherein the servants are sent out to spread the good news. I don't see how this puts any of the other events described in ch. 24 out of sequence.
If, as I believe, John wrote Revelation in about 65, the temporal indicators in ch. 1 fit perfectly with the events of 66-70, and there is no problem with the sequence of events in 24.
Again, this is circular reasoning.
Likewise; I appreciate your explanation.
God willing one of these days you're going to finally behold the refulgent resplendent glorious truth of prophecy. Which, in truth, is a near-future pretrib rapture of the Church and millennial reign, with Israel redeemed, reconstituted and recommission for glorious service.
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