BELIEFS ABOUT THE KJV

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oyster67

Senior Member
May 24, 2014
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I'm tired of playing this game with you...Satan's words are part of the word of truth. It is truth that Satan said what he said. Simple.
I like to say that the Bible tells the good, the bad, and the ugly, and that's the Truth. (y)
 

Beckie

Well-known member
Feb 15, 2022
2,516
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For some 2,500 years God only dealt with the nation of Israel. All those poor souls who God ignored...
Only as they came in contact with dealing with Israel.
Did God ignore them? No.
The wise men from the east just came to mind were they Israelites?

I understand what John146 is saying, been there myself .
 

Amanuensis

Well-known member
Jun 12, 2021
1,457
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I comment all who took advantage of the opportunity to study the original languages.
Most of us were to busy making a living and raising kids.
Probably true of those who taught and preached the Gospel that lead untold millions to Jesus.
I have known unlearned men whose understanding was second to none, and I have known very educated men that did not have a clue of the truth.
I never base my acceptance of a person's understanding on his education and would suggest all to do likewise.
We are talking about translating languages not how to be a Christian or an effective Gospel preacher.

When it comes to deciding which English translation is better I will always listen to an expert in Greek rather than a KJVO conspiracy theorist who can't read Greek. Education is necessary for translating correctly from one language to another.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,325
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That’s your opinion. I disagree. God has stated over and over about how his words abide forever.
"Over and over"? That means several times in Scripture. Show us the evidence.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,325
13,713
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Been debunked several times on here, you just deny to hear it.
You have "debunked" nothing. Rather, you have merely provided the explanations that satisfy you.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,325
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Where did God tell you this? Is there more truth to be had outside of his word? Therein lies the problem...his word is not sufficent.
Q: Which Scripture told Abraham to move from Ur, or Elijah to go to Zarephath, or Philip to go to the Gaza road, or Paul to go to Macedonia?

A: NONE.

The Holy Spirit told these men to go where they went. The Holy Spirit still speaks to His people... outside of Scripture. So, the answer to your question is Yes... there is truth to be had outside of His word.

It appears that you have an incorrect view of the sufficiency of Scripture.
 
Jun 20, 2022
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(16) 1 John 5:7–8
Main article: Johannine Comma
KJV: 7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the holy Ghost, and these three are one.
8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, ...

This verse first appears, not in a New Testament manuscript, [[((but in a fifth century Confession of Faith))]], (because of the lack of Greek documentary support) omitted from the first two "Textus Receptus" printed editions of the New Testament (namely those edited by [[((Erasmus))]], 1516 and 1519).

:ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::LOL::LOL::LOL::LOL::LOL::LOL::LOL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL:

the textus receptus and the kjv Bible are using a Catholic Confession Recital for 1 John 5:7-8 that was [[((never never never never never))]] the Inspired Word of God but a Catholic Confessional Recital chant!!

Are you kidding me and you call the KJV Inspired of God???????

more like inspired by the Roman Catholic Demonic Church!!
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,085
3,677
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Did God ignore them? No.
The wise men from the east just came to mind were they Israelites?

I understand what John146 is saying, been there myself .
Trust me, You haven't been where I've been.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,085
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Q: Which Scripture told Abraham to move from Ur, or Elijah to go to Zarephath, or Philip to go to the Gaza road, or Paul to go to Macedonia?

A: NONE.

The Holy Spirit told these men to go where they went. The Holy Spirit still speaks to His people... outside of Scripture. So, the answer to your question is Yes... there is truth to be had outside of His word.

It appears that you have an incorrect view of the sufficiency of Scripture.
Scripture can foresee...And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

Scripture talked to Pharaoh through Moses...For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
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the textus receptus and the kjv Bible are using a Catholic Confession Recital for 1 John 5:7-8
More SILLY anti-KJV propaganda. No one should be intimidated by nonsense.

PART I
The following is an excerpt from Dr. Thomas Holland's Crowned With Glory, ©2000, used with permission.
1 John 5:7 (Johannine Comma) - "These Three Are One"
"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." —1Jo 5:7


The passage is called the Johannine Comma and is not found in the majority of Greek manuscripts. [1] However, the verse is a wonderful testimony to the Heavenly Trinity and should be maintained in our English versions, not only because of its doctrinal significance but because of the external and internal evidence that testify to its authenticity.

The External Support: Although not found in most Greek manuscripts, the Johannine Comma is found in several. It is contained in 629 (fourteenth century), 61 (sixteenth century), 918 (sixteenth century), 2473 (seventeenth century), and 2318 (eighteenth century). It is also in the margins of 221 (tenth century), 635 (eleventh century), 88 (twelveth century), 429 (fourteenth century), and 636 (fifteenth century). There are about five hundred existing manuscripts of 1 John chapter five that do not contain the Comma. [2] It is clear that the reading found in the Textus Receptus is the minority reading with later textual support from the Greek witnesses. Nevertheless, being a minority reading does not eliminate it as genuine.

The Critical Text considers the reading Iesou (of Jesus) to be the genuine reading instead of Iesou Christou (of Jesus Christ) in 1 John 1:7. Yet Iesou is the minority reading with only twenty-four manuscripts supporting it, while four hundred seventy-seven manuscripts support the reading Iesou Christou found in the Textus Receptus. Likewise, in 1 John 2:20 the minority reading pantes (all) has only twelve manuscripts supporting it, while the majority reading is panta (all things) has four hundred ninety-one manuscripts. Still, the Critical Text favors the minority reading over the majority in that passage. This is common place throughout the First Epistle of John, and the New Testament as a whole. Therefore, simply because a reading is in the minority does not eliminate it as being considered original.

While the Greek textual evidence is weak, the Latin textual evidence for the Comma is extremely strong. It is in the vast majority of the Old Latin manuscripts, which outnumber the Greek manuscripts. Although some doubt if the Comma was a part of Jerome's original Vulgate, the evidence suggests that it was. Jerome states:
In that place particularly where we read about the unity of the Trinity which is placed in the First Epistle of John, in which also the names of three, i.e. of water, of blood, and of spirit, do they place in their edition and omitting the testimony of the Father; and the Word, and the Spirit in which the catholic faith is especially confirmed and the single substance of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit is confirmed. [3]
Other church fathers are also known to have quoted the Comma. Although some have questioned if Cyprian (258 AD) knew of the Comma, his citation certainly suggests that he did. He writes: "The Lord says, 'I and the Father are one' and likewise it is written of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit, 'And these three are one'." [4] Also, there is no doubt that Priscillian (385 AD) cites the Comma:
As John says "and there are three which give testimony on earth, the water, the flesh, the blood, and these three are in one, and there are three which give testimony in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Spirit, and these three are one in Christ Jesus." [5]
Likewise, the anti-Arian work compiled by an unknown writer, the Varimadum (380 AD) states: "And John the Evangelist says, . . . 'And there are three who give testimony in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Spirit, and these three are one'." [6] Additionally, Cassian (435 AD), Cassiodorus (580 AD), and a host of other African and Western bishops in subsequent centuries have cited the Comma. [7] Therefore, we see that the reading has massive and ancient textual support apart from the Greek witnesses.

Internal Evidence: The structure of the Comma is certainly Johannine in style. John is noted for referring to Christ as "the Word." If 1 John 5:7 were an interpretation of verse eight, as some have suggested, than we would expect the verse to use "Son" instead of "Word." However, the verse uses the Greek word logos, which is uniquely in the style of John and provides evidence of its genuineness. Also, we find John drawing parallels between the Trinity and what they testify (1 John 4:13-14). Therefore, it comes as no surprise to find a parallel of witnesses containing groups of three, one heavenly and one earthly.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
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PART II
The strongest evidence, however, is found in the Greek text itself. Looking at 1 John 5:8, there are three nouns which, in Greek, stand in the neuter (Spirit, water, and blood). However, they are followed by a participle that is masculine. The Greek phrase here is oi marturountes (who bare witness). Those who know the Greek language understand this to be poor grammar if left to stand on its own. Even more noticeably, verse six has the same participle but stands in the neuter (Gk.: to marturoun). Why are three neuter nouns supported with a masculine participle? The answer is found if we include verse seven. There we have two masculine nouns (Father and Son) followed by a neuter noun (Spirit). The verse also has the Greek masculine participle oi marturountes. With this clause introducing verse eight, it is very proper for the participle in verse eight to be masculine, because of the masculine nouns in verse seven. But if verse seven were not there it would become improper Greek grammar.

Even though Gregory of Nazianzus (390 AD) does not testify to the authenticity of the Comma, he makes mention of the flawed grammar resulting from its absence. In his Theological Orientations he writes referring to John:
. . . (he has not been consistent) in the way he has happened upon his terms; for after using Three in the masculine gender he adds three words which are neuter, contrary to the definitions and laws which you and your grammarians have laid down. For what is the difference between putting a masculine Three first, and then adding One and One and One in the neuter, or after a masculine One and One and One to use the Three not in the masculine but in the neuter, which you yourselves disclaim in the case of Deity? [8]

It is clear that Gregory recognized the inconsistency with Greek grammar if all we have are verses six and eight without verse seven. Other scholars have recognized the same thing. This was the argument of Robert Dabney of Union Theological Seminary in his book, The Doctrinal Various Readings of the New Testament Greek (1891). Bishop Middleton in his book, Doctrine of the Greek Article, argues that verse seven must be a part of the text according to the Greek structure of the passage. Even in the famous commentary by Matthew Henry, there is a note stating that we must have verse seven if we are to have proper Greek in verse eight. [9]

While the external evidence makes the originality of the Comma possible, the internal evidence makes it very probable. When we consider the providential hand of God and His use of the Traditional Text in the Reformation it is clear that the Comma is authentic.

[1] The first and second editions of Erasmus' Greek text did not contain the Comma. It is generally reported that Erasmus promised to include the Comma in his third edition if a single manuscript containing the Comma could be produced. A Franciscan friar named Froy (or Roy) forged a Greek text containing it by translating the Comma from the Latin into Greek. Erasmus was then presented with this falsified manuscript and, being faithful to his word, reluctantly included the Comma in the 1522 edition. However, as has now been admitted by Dr. Bruce Metzger, this story is apocryphal (The Text Of The New Testament, 291). Metzger notes that H. J. de Jonge, a respected specialist on Erasmus, has established that there is no evidence of such events occurring. Therefore, opponents of the Comma in light of the historical facts should no longer affirm this report.
[2] Kurt Aland, in connection with Annette Benduhn-Mertz and Gerd Mink, Text und Textwert der griechischen Handschriften des Neuen Testaments: I. Die Katholischen Briefe Band 1: Das Material (Berlin: Walter De Gruyter, 1987), 163-166.
[3] Prologue To The Canonical Epistles. The Latin text reads, "si ab interpretibus fideliter in latinum eloquium verterentur nec ambiguitatem legentibus facerent nec trinitatis unitate in prima joannis epistola positum legimus, in qua etiam, trium tantummodo vocabula hoc est aquae, sanguinis et spiritus in ipsa sua editione ponentes et patris verbique ac aspiritus testimoninum omittentes, in quo maxime et fides catholica roboratur, et patris et filii et spirtus sancti una divinitatis substantia comprobatur."
[4] Treatises 1 5:423.
[5] Liber Apologeticus.
[6] Varimadum 90:20-21.
[7] Some other sources include the Speculum (or m of 450 AD), Victor of Vita (489 AD), Victor Vitensis (485 AD), Codex Freisingensis (of 500 AD), Fulgentius (533 AD), Isidore of Seville (636 AD), Codex Pal Legionensis (650 AD), and Jaqub of Edessa (700 AD). Interestingly, it is also found in the edition of the Apostle's Creed used by the Waldenses and Albigensians of the twelfth century.
[8] Fifth Orientation the Holy Spirit.
[9] Actually the 1 John commentary is the work of "Mr. John Reynolds of Shrewsbury," one of the ministers who completed Matthew Henry's commentary, which was left incomplete [only up to the end of Acts] at Henry's death in 1714.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,095
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In

I'm glad that you are so interested in the Bible. We have a more sure word of prophecy.
If you didn't get a chance to watch the rest yet, the 20++ minutes section goes into techniques used to make appearance of age. The white appearance itself makes it suspect. I asked myself why would part lack appearance of oxidation?
Then I ask, why would he stain it?
Yea, I like Chris Pinto and David Daniels, overall, the 4th century may well have been turned into a 15th ce manuscript based on the style, ornament, etc used in the seeming 4th ce mss. I heard recently that even the LXX is found to be faked based on paleographic evidence. Yes I have yet to see the full video series and thanks for the link.
 
R

RichMan

Guest
We are talking about translating languages not how to be a Christian or an effective Gospel preacher.

When it comes to deciding which English translation is better I will always listen to an expert in Greek rather than a KJVO conspiracy theorist who can't read Greek. Education is necessary for translating correctly from one language to another.
While I mostly agree with this post, I have found that sometimes the experts do not agree.
I use several Greek and Hebrew dictionaries and there are times that they do not fully agree.
Education is great. If I had had the opportunity to learn Greek and Hebrew I would have, but when a person demands I believe him just because he is more educated than me, I tend to be suspect.
While I prefer the KJV, I am not foolish enough to believe it is a perfect translation, or that God inspired the translation.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,095
958
113
(16) 1 John 5:7–8
Main article: Johannine Comma
KJV: 7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the holy Ghost, and these three are one.
8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, ...

This verse first appears, not in a New Testament manuscript, [[((but in a fifth century Confession of Faith))]], (because of the lack of Greek documentary support) omitted from the first two "Textus Receptus" printed editions of the New Testament (namely those edited by [[((Erasmus))]], 1516 and 1519).

:ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::LOL::LOL::LOL::LOL::LOL::LOL::LOL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL:

the textus receptus and the kjv Bible are using a Catholic Confession Recital for 1 John 5:7-8 that was [[((never never never never never))]] the Inspired Word of God but a Catholic Confessional Recital chant!!

Are you kidding me and you call the KJV Inspired of God???????

more like inspired by the Roman Catholic Demonic Church!!
This already falls to ad hominem...
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,769
113
It is both ironical and hypocritical that those who support THE MINORITY TEXT (where some things are found only in one or two manuscripts, but touted as outstanding) have the gall to mock the Johannine Comma. Indeed the Critical Text of Westcott & Hort (which continues to this day as the Nestle-Aland and United Bible Societies text) is based primarily on ONLY TWO CORRUPT GREEK MANUSCRIPTS -- Aleph and B!