The wikipedia article is much more informative. It explains how some forms of early candle making goes back to before the first century but it was not used in Rome or in Israel and we know that it did not become popular until the middle ages.
But it comes down to the fact that the Greek word John used was the word for oil fed lamps. Which was what they used in John's day.
So why translate it candlesticks when that was not the Greek word used? One must ask the KJV scholars why they chose to use an English word that they knew did not have the same meaning as the Greek word that John used?
Was it because they thought that their readers would not understand what the oil fed lamp looked like so they chose an English word that would conjour up and image that the reader could relate to?
If so this would be an example of not being the most accurate word for what John wrote and intended. Oil fed lamp would have been a better choice if the wanted to educate the reader on 1st century image of that Greek word. But just lamp and lampstand would be more accurate than candlestick which is not what John wrote in Greek. He used no such word. If he had seen wax candlesticks he would have used a different Greek word than the one he used which was always used to describe the oil fed lamp of his day.
Finding evidence that there was some form of a wax fed light before the first century does not change this. John did not use such a word about a wax fed light. But there is no mystery about the fact that they did not use such lighting in Rome or Israel or even Europe at the time John wrote so archeological evidence of one in Egypt or China makes no difference.
Your argument is that it was not used in Rome and in Israel, so that in John’s day has not been used, instead it was an oil fed lamp?
I think this is not the fact as supposed.
1st, The Revelation of Jesus Christ written by John was on the Isle of Patmos, a Greek Island. While the candle may have not been used literally in the area, but, it was already known in the Greeks long before John did write Revelation. This give me a fair thought that if it is known by the Greeks why not the Apostle John? He may be not but he knows it there is already a candle being used and a candlestick.
The Symposium by Xenophon (306 BC) gives clear about this thing.
We need not fare far afield to light on marvels, if that is our object. All about us here is full of marvel; we can begin at once by wondering, why it is the candle gives a light by dint of its bright flame, while side by side with it the bright bronze vessel gives no light, but shows within itself those other objects mirrored. (1) Or, how is it that oil, being moist and liquid, keeps that flame ablaze, but water, just because it is liquid, quenches fire. But no more do these same marvels tend to promote the object of the wine-cup. (2)
(1) Cf. "Mem." IV. vii. 7. Socrates' criticism of Anaxagoras' theory
with regard to the sun.
(2) Lit. "work to the same end as wine."
https://www.gutenberg.org/files/1181/1181-h/1181-h.htm
Second, Is is true that Israel was not even used in John’s day? This time, I look up the Jewish library and found that it was literally in the temple. Evidence traced there was a candle stick. Here’s the link.
https://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/3964-candlestick
Thirdly, it might be that candle, or candlestick is synonymously or used as the same thing as a lamp or lampstand, however, it if was, a candle or candle stick that does provide a clear picture than a lamp or lampstand speaking of today. So far, many today’s rebuttal that the KJB does not provide the very meaning today is a hopeless argument if your argument is said to be true. KJB does provide far clearer than one thought.
The ISB online, recognize the word candlestick giving it literally as a lampstand yet the actual menorah so happens it was not but a candle as it is today.
https://www.internationalstandardbible.com/C/candlestick-the-golden.html
https://www.timesofisrael.com/7-facts-about-menorahs-the-most-enduring-symbol-of-the-jewish-people/
Now, the Greek used was λυχνία is recognized by Thayer, Winer, and Strong as a candlestick. Since we have it either lampstand or candlestick, that makes them a tie but I would not settle it less. “Comparing scriptures” is within the context of the Bible, so we can settle this once.
https://biblehub.com/greek/3087.htm
Greek is understood in other languages;
Latin = candelabra or candlestick.
Syriac = translated by Etheridge, Lamsa, Murdock as candlestick
Spanish= RV has candeleros for candlestick
French = Segondo has chandeliers for candlestick
German = Luther has Leuchter for candlestick
Lamp has another Greek which is lampas and this may finally settle this thingy. God bless