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Not going into any deep study of the phrase, I googled, "loyalty to a fault" and the first result shows it is defined that it, "ensures that you always have the interest of your relationship at the center of your heart; you’re interested in what’s best not just for you, but for your partner, and that spurs you to make the necessary sacrifices..."
The problem here comes in when we sacrifice the truth of God to maintain a relationship with any particular person, or translator in this case. I can't think of any reason to sacrifice truth for anyone or anything. We should be careful of our need to discern whether we are accepting the truth or rejecting it to maintain a relationship with anyone other than God, whom is Truth with a capital T.
The problem here comes in when we sacrifice the truth of God to maintain a relationship with any particular person, or translator in this case. I can't think of any reason to sacrifice truth for anyone or anything. We should be careful of our need to discern whether we are accepting the truth or rejecting it to maintain a relationship with anyone other than God, whom is Truth with a capital T.
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Okay. But if you go down that road then you paint yourself into a corner by saying only one edition of the KJV is free of corruptions, since there have been many editions with different renderings. Using your logic only one can be uncorrupted and any other wording is corrupted. Maybe that's your position, I don't know.
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I had 2 uncles who were Lithuanian. Both by marriage. They were not related, but went together to visit their homeland about 20 years before they died,(Both were ESL speaking Lithuanian first!)
As for me, my DNA tests show about 5% Baltic DNA. So far, I have not determined which of the 3 countries I am, but likely Lithuanian since it is closest to Poland, and at different times one ruled the other. I have a lot of Polish blood. And Ukrainian on my father's side.
(One note about Putin's claims that Russian and Ukrainian are similar. First, although they both use Cyrillic for the letters, some letters sound completely different. As I am finding out, Polish and Ukrainian are very similar, and they can understand the other language when spoken, although Polish uses to the Latin alphabet, and a lot of accent masks!)
What does this have to do with the KJV? Just that almost every language has Bibles translated into their language, which are usually easy to read.. I'm learning Ukrainian and Polish, so I can read the Bible in those languages. Of course, the only Bible I have never gotten through is the KJV! Too many obsolete words and grammar, as well as the tendency to follow Greek word order, which translates into bad English. Greek has cases and English does not. We ordered our words usually subject-verb-predicate. Greek word order can use Nominative, Accusative, Dative and Genitive cases with the occasional Optative. In other words, the nominative, which would likely be the subject in English, but in Greek you can start a sentence with the accusative. You can have a predicate nominative, too! Although Polish and Ukrainian have 7 cases, the word order is "flexible!"
I like that Greek has cases, and German has 4 cases. Both Ukrainian & Polish have 7 cases. I'm glad I know other languages that have cases. Hebrew has many different forms, but not cases. It is much closer to English word order than Greek. I compared Hebrew to the KJV in seminary, and the KJV was very close. Despite the translators of the KJV tendency to follow Greek word order, there are many instances where it messes up, because the English & Greek are not comparable languages.
I read Greek well, having 2 years of Master's degree courses. I only have one year of Hebrew, but I don't use it as much as Greek, so some of it has been lost. A brush-up course, perhaps? (I also read a Greek NT & German Bible daily, along with m NET Bible. I do agree footnotes can be misleading, but the 66K footnotes in the NET are mostly about translating a word from the original languages to English, or historical, geographical, or interesting scholarship about a verse. Very little bias, except being conservative. The ESV footnotes have a lot of bias, one of the reasons I stopppprd using it after a few years of reading the Bible through.
As for me, my DNA tests show about 5% Baltic DNA. So far, I have not determined which of the 3 countries I am, but likely Lithuanian since it is closest to Poland, and at different times one ruled the other. I have a lot of Polish blood. And Ukrainian on my father's side.
(One note about Putin's claims that Russian and Ukrainian are similar. First, although they both use Cyrillic for the letters, some letters sound completely different. As I am finding out, Polish and Ukrainian are very similar, and they can understand the other language when spoken, although Polish uses to the Latin alphabet, and a lot of accent masks!)
What does this have to do with the KJV? Just that almost every language has Bibles translated into their language, which are usually easy to read.. I'm learning Ukrainian and Polish, so I can read the Bible in those languages. Of course, the only Bible I have never gotten through is the KJV! Too many obsolete words and grammar, as well as the tendency to follow Greek word order, which translates into bad English. Greek has cases and English does not. We ordered our words usually subject-verb-predicate. Greek word order can use Nominative, Accusative, Dative and Genitive cases with the occasional Optative. In other words, the nominative, which would likely be the subject in English, but in Greek you can start a sentence with the accusative. You can have a predicate nominative, too! Although Polish and Ukrainian have 7 cases, the word order is "flexible!"
I like that Greek has cases, and German has 4 cases. Both Ukrainian & Polish have 7 cases. I'm glad I know other languages that have cases. Hebrew has many different forms, but not cases. It is much closer to English word order than Greek. I compared Hebrew to the KJV in seminary, and the KJV was very close. Despite the translators of the KJV tendency to follow Greek word order, there are many instances where it messes up, because the English & Greek are not comparable languages.
I read Greek well, having 2 years of Master's degree courses. I only have one year of Hebrew, but I don't use it as much as Greek, so some of it has been lost. A brush-up course, perhaps? (I also read a Greek NT & German Bible daily, along with m NET Bible. I do agree footnotes can be misleading, but the 66K footnotes in the NET are mostly about translating a word from the original languages to English, or historical, geographical, or interesting scholarship about a verse. Very little bias, except being conservative. The ESV footnotes have a lot of bias, one of the reasons I stopppprd using it after a few years of reading the Bible through.
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"Changes to actual scripture"?
If your standard against which you measure is the KJV, your arguments are baseless; all you can demonstrate is difference. By that standard, one could argue with the same authority that the KJV is wrong.
The modern versions (with the possible exception of a select few) don't distort or diminish the deity of Christ at all. Cherry-picking certain verses and highlighting changes is not sound scholarship, but rather promoting biased propaganda.
If your standard against which you measure is the KJV, your arguments are baseless; all you can demonstrate is difference. By that standard, one could argue with the same authority that the KJV is wrong.
The modern versions (with the possible exception of a select few) don't distort or diminish the deity of Christ at all. Cherry-picking certain verses and highlighting changes is not sound scholarship, but rather promoting biased propaganda.
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Actually, Erasmus did not mess up!! He found no late Greek manuscripts that had 1 John 5:8. It was added to the Latin Vulgate. He begged the pope to allow him to eliminate verse 8, which scholars agree is 100% spurious. The Pope would not allow Erasmus to delete it, because it seemed so important for Yrinitarian theology! Plus, Erasmus was in a hurry to get his translation out before his competitor did. It was worth a great deal of money and prestige, publishing first. In order to get the Imprimatur stamp of approval, he had to leave verse 8 in. Erasmus was a Catholic priest, and didn't want to disobey someone higher up in hierarchy. So he sacrificed accuracy for get his version printed first! This is a definite mistake in the KJV.
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Any idea what language the word Velyku could be? My 1910 Lithuanian Bible, printed in Berlyne (old spelling for Berlin?) uses that word for easter at Acts12:4. I don't find that word in my 1910 printed in Chicago Lithuanian dictionary and the Google search I did about a year ago came up with possibly the word being Belarus for Great Day.
Scripture tells us that there is more than one, confirming the modern translations:
2 Corinthians 12:2
I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth such an one caught up to the third heaven.
2 Corinthians 12:2
I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth such an one caught up to the third heaven.
The introduction of the critical Greek text was planned long ago by Catholic popes. Laugh all you want; anyone who knows anything about the true history of the critical text knows this is a fact.
The Popes have hated the textus receptus and the KJV since it was introduced in 1611. Because of its popularity, it solidified and unified Protestants. Ever since they've been plotting a way to undermine it and get Protestants back under their thumb. Even the Catholic Bible used today is no longer based on Latin but on the UBS-NA critical text.
The Popes have hated the textus receptus and the KJV since it was introduced in 1611. Because of its popularity, it solidified and unified Protestants. Ever since they've been plotting a way to undermine it and get Protestants back under their thumb. Even the Catholic Bible used today is no longer based on Latin but on the UBS-NA critical text.
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My neighbor just came back from a trip to Vatican City and I think he only recently purchased a Catholic Bible while visiting some shrine in Pennsylvania and when we discuss something he always is coming up with, "what Bible are you using". I tell him any Bible is o.k. even your Catholic Bible. I think he is finally realizing that the Imprimatur may not be that important
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