You would have been better off not to paste this nonsense.I did not write this, it was pasted by me, but written by it is at the bottom of the page.
You would have been better off not to paste this nonsense.I did not write this, it was pasted by me, but written by it is at the bottom of the page.
Nonsense you call it, Just to know how other Christians see this.You would have been better off not to paste this nonsense.
Is this historical enquiry of any importance or is it more important to talk about the spirit of our Lord and his love for us?? This sounds more like a legal case or a history buff thing. Not meaning to be disrespectful.Why though, does the KJV translate YHWH to LORD instead of Jehovah in the OT?
The translation would not be "Jehovah" but Yahweh for YHWH (as is generally accepted). But there were no vowels associated with YHWH.Why though, does the KJV translate YHWH to LORD instead of Jehovah in the OT?
Is this not nonsense? "The Hebrew words Adonai, Alahim, Eloi, Eloah, and others are pronouns as you know. Many people feel it is wrong to substitute formerly Pagan terms or names for Father Yahuah, of course (like GOD). "Nonsense you call it, Just to know how other Christians see this.
It's fine. Well it's truly something I've thought about. I used to really wonder if we should be calling God by his Hebrew name. Now I've come to the point of believing it's not something that is a big deal, but the reason I ask the question is because many people believe the KJV was translated perfectly and to me this instance at least looks like they could have done better. I understand what @Nehemiah6 said in post #44 about how the Jews didn't even say the name YHWH so that's probably why they used "the LORD" instead of Jehovah. It's probably not a big deal.Is this historical enquiry of any importance or is it more important to talk about the spirit of our Lord and his love for us?? This sounds more like a legal case or a history buff thing. Not meaning to be disrespectful.
“Therefore my people shall know my name: therefore they shall know
in that day that I am he that doth speak: behold, it is I.” Isaiah 52:6 KJV
It's fine. Well it's truly something I've thought about. I used to really wonder if we should be calling God by his Hebrew name. Now I've come to the point of believing it's not something that is a big deal, but the reason I ask the question is because many people believe the KJV was translated perfectly and to me this instance at least looks like they could have done better. I understand what @Nehemiah6 said in post #44 about how the Jews didn't even say the name YHWH so that's probably why they used "the LORD" instead of Jehovah. It's probably not a big deal.
Haven't been to college, why? I'm not very scholarly but I do want to be a good Berean.Did you study the bible at college?
Haven't been to college, why? I'm not very scholarly but I do want to be a good Berean.
That's okay.Sorry i am ignorant LOL..what is Berean?
Sorry i am ignorant LOL..what is Berean?
Aha..well you are quite the scholar. ARe your children as invested in the bible as you?That's okay.It was a group of Jews that Paul preached to in Berea that searched the scriptures to see if what he was saying was true. Acts 17:10&11
I am familiare with Berea Kentucky hahaAha..well you are quite the scholar. ARe your children as invested in the bible as you?
From the Old Testament we have Strong's H3444 and it occurs 77 times in the KJV.
ישׁוּעה
yeshû‛âh
yesh-oo’-aw
Feminine passive participle of H3467; something saved, that is, (abstractly) deliverance; hence aid, victory, prosperity: - deliverance, health, help (-ing), salvation, save, saving (health), welfare.
The name "Jesus" is a transliteration which comes from the name we know as "Joshua" or Yehoshua. The letter "J" was put into use about 500 years ago.