Why do christian woman refuse to wear headscarf when praying?

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SomeDisciple

SomeDisciple

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#108
Jul 4, 2021
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#108
HopeinHim98 said:
And also, why does Paul specifically say while praying or prophesying, as if it's something that can be taken on and off?
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It depends on who you ask. Some people say that Paul specifies this because the women always covered; but certain women
wanted to uncover while prophecying... so when Paul says "we have no such custom" he is referring to not having a custom of women uncovering to prophecy... obviously a lot of people disagree with that; but I've seen really good supporting research, it's not just some mysogynists making stuff up.
 
2ndTimeIsTheCharm

2ndTimeIsTheCharm

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#111
Feb 17, 2023
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#111
SomeDisciple said:
It depends on who you ask. Some people say that Paul specifies this because the women always covered; but certain women
wanted to uncover while prophecying... so when Paul says "we have no such custom" he is referring to not having a custom of women uncovering to prophecy... obviously a lot of people disagree with that; but I've seen really good supporting research, it's not just some mysogynists making stuff up.
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Paul was talking about cultural issues of that time, not necessarily that women of every decade, in every generation everywhere had to wear a veil. In the area of Corinth, it was the culture for married women to wear a veil while praying and prophesying to show their submission to their husband as head of their family in the church. But some women were taking their veils off while praying and prophesying as if to show that they're defying their position.

So this isn't about a command from God that women must wear veils when they pray and prophesy for all time everywhere. This was a matter of gender distinction and position. If Paul was here in the now, Paul would have defined how men and women should show distinction between the genders and hierarchy of family (husbands as leaders and wives as under the care, protection and leadership of the husband, and single people as proper single men and women under the care of the Lord Jesus).

❧
 
Mem

Mem

Senior Member
#113
Sep 23, 2014
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#113
At what age does a female cease being a maiden and becomes a "woman"? Or is it, rather, more accurately to ask, "what circumstance or event transforms the maiden into a woman?

The correct answer to this would greatly aid in my figuring out this mysterious issue.
 
Magenta

Magenta

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#114
Jul 3, 2015
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#114
Mem said:
At what age does a female cease being a maiden and becomes a "woman"? Or is it, rather, more accurately to ask, "what circumstance or event transforms the maiden into a woman?

The correct answer to this would greatly aid in my figuring out this mysterious issue.
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A maid or maiden is a virgin. Hence, "old maid" for an unmarried woman.

How times have changed...
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#115
Jun 30, 2015
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#115
KJ91 said:
lots of feminists in this forum. modern christian women have been posion by secularism. go back 100 years, all christian women cover their hair when praying back then
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Judging Christians on their practices is God's job, not yours. Spend your time doing homework on the text instead of trying to force your (very limited) understanding on others.
 
Mem

Mem

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#116
Sep 23, 2014
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#116
Magenta said:
A maid or maiden is a virgin. Hence, "old maid" for an unmarried woman.

How times have changed...
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Yes! I was thinking of that particular term when posing the question. I looked up instances relative to the use of each term and noticed a verse that used both "maidens" and "women," and it was presented in a context that attached "children" to "women" so, I think that touches on a specific distinction between the applicability of each term. What seems apparent, to me anyway, that the "wo(mb)" in a maiden is, ideally at least, inactive or if you will, lying dormant, until she is given to "man."

And this understanding makes more sense of all the head shaving going on.
 
Magenta

Magenta

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#117
Jul 3, 2015
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#117
Mem said:
Yes! I was thinking of that particular term when posing the question. I looked up instances relative
to the use of each term and noticed a verse that used both "maidens" and "women," and it was
presented in a context that attached "children" to "women" so, I think that touches on a specific
distinction between the applicability of each term. What seems apparent, to me anyway, that the
"wo(mb)" in a maiden is, ideally at least, inactive or if you will, ying dormant, until she is given to "man."

And this understanding makes more sense of all the head shaving going on.
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Amah, young woman, in Biblical times, was always considered to be a virgin.
If she was not was a very serious matter. It was policed at the time of betrothal.
Proof had to be given by her family if the man made claims contrary to the maidens'.
 
Mem

Mem

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#118
Sep 23, 2014
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#118
Magenta said:
Amah, young woman, in Biblical times, was always considered to be a virgin.
If she was not was a very serious matter. It was policed at the time of betrothal.
Proof had to be given by the family if the man made claims contrary to the maidens.
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Imagining a community riddled with shaven women, I see no wonder that long hair would then have been a woman's glory.
 
Magenta

Magenta

Senior Member
#119
Jul 3, 2015
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#119
Mem said:
Imagining a community riddled with shaven women, I see no wonder that long hair would then have been a woman's glory.
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Some believe that only defiled women (especially such as prostitutes) would
uncover their hair. Like an act of rebellion, and/or showing lack of respect.
 
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