problem related to praying in tongues

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
Jun 20, 2022
6,460
1,330
113
Jesus called Mary WOMAN. But on the cross He told John Mary was John's Mother.

Jesus separated Mary from word GO because Mary was only a instrument used by God
 

ResidentAlien

Well-known member
Apr 21, 2021
8,312
3,618
113
Pay attention to the words in various contexts and if you are seeking truth and reality you will recognize that the word glosse in the Greek means "language"

Tongue is just the archaic word for language.
Example: He spoke in his native tongue.

Here is the same word used by John ( 1 John 3:19)

18My little children, let us not love in word, neither in tongue; but in deed and in truth. KJV

Read Corinthians and use the word "languages" instead of "tongues" and it is undeniable that Paul was addressing known earthly languages if one reads the letter with correct hermeneutics.

We have information now, this is not the turn of the last century where people were fooled by false teachings.
1 Corinthians 14:10-12 is clearly talking about human languages:

"There are, it may be, so many kinds of languages in the world, and none of them is without significance. Therefore, if I do not know the meaning of the language, I shall be a foreigner to him who speaks, and he who speaks will be a foreigner to me. Even so you, since you are zealous for spiritual gifts, let it be for the edification of the church that you seek to excel."

He's talking about "languages in the world," not angelic languages. What a person would have to do is say Paul was using earthly languages as an example but was really talking about heavenly languages. It wouldn't surprise me a bit to see this argument being made.

On another point, Paul clearly says the main reason for spiritual gifts is for the edification of the church, not the individual.
 
Dec 21, 2020
1,825
474
83
Begotten means not physical birth but adoption, like God has adopted us.
Our being sons of God is described as both literal and adoption. If you're a Christian, you are literally born of God by the gift of holy spirit.

For Jesus to be a real Son in the sense of being a GLINT IN THE FATHER'S EYE, a female has to be involved.
Mary...

You just described everyone born with a dad.

The WORD has no parents, the WORD IS GOD!
A logos has no parents. The logos made flesh does. God created within Mary what was necessary for her to conceive the human Messish, Jesus Christ. Jesus' literal mother is Mary. His literal Father is God (through an act of creation).
 
Dec 21, 2020
1,825
474
83
Really oh and your blanket statements will confirm that.

John confirms Jesus was there in the beginning.
No he doesn't. God's logos (His will, plan, purposes) was there in the beginning. Jesus wasn't.
 
Dec 21, 2020
1,825
474
83
Jesus called Mary WOMAN. But on the cross He told John Mary was John's Mother.

Jesus separated Mary from word GO because Mary was only a instrument used by God
Mary was Jesus' literal, actual mother. It is through Mary that Jesus Christ was a blood descendant of David. On the cross, Jesus was telling John to take care of Mary.
 

Fundaamental

Well-known member
Mar 17, 2023
3,289
421
83
Do you believe melchizidek was preincarnate Jesus?
John 1:1–3: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through him,

The word and he are described as two separate insertions here.

The word means the word that was with God, and he means Jesus.

How can you conclude he means the word, ?

That would be an exaggeration

The word was with both Jesus and God.
 
Jun 20, 2022
6,460
1,330
113
On another point, Paul clearly says the main reason for spiritual gifts is for the edification of the church, not the individual.
do you actually read the Bible?

He who speaks in a tongue edifies himself, but he who prophesies edifies the church.
 

HeIsHere

Well-known member
May 21, 2022
5,900
2,288
113
I am well aware that "tongues" is languages. If someone said they "speak in languages" there may be some question as to what they were talking about. But when someone is talking about "speaking in tongues," it is usually understood that they are talking about the manifestation of the gift of the Holy Spirit.


No it isn't.


oh, the irony.....
It is ironic because I am willing to bet you have never really done a deep dive into the opposing view with good exegesis and looking at the historical context.

Believe as you will, Corinthians is letter written to a church which had many earthly languages and it was causing confusion among the members and Paul was given instruction on how to deal with the various languages being spoken.

I just think it is sad how people are duped. As @Kavik has clearly articulated this phenomena of speaking "in tongues" has been closely examined and researched, it is not a language it is a string of meaningless morphemes.

Language has structure and is organized it is not free vocalization.
 
Jun 20, 2022
6,460
1,330
113
John 1:1–3: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through him,

The word and he are described as two separate insertions here.

The word means the word that was with God, and he means Jesus.

How can you conclude he means the word, ?

That would be an exaggeration

The word was with both Jesus and God.
do you believe the figure of God as a man in the OLD TESTAMENT is the pre-incarnate Jesus, who will be God as man in the New Testament?
 
Dec 21, 2020
1,825
474
83
1 Corinthians 14:10-12 is clearly talking about human languages:

"There are, it may be, so many kinds of languages in the world, and none of them is without significance. Therefore, if I do not know the meaning of the language, I shall be a foreigner to him who speaks, and he who speaks will be a foreigner to me. Even so you, since you are zealous for spiritual gifts, let it be for the edification of the church that you seek to excel."

He's talking about "languages in the world," not angelic languages. What a person would have to do is say Paul was using earthly languages as an example but was really talking about heavenly languages. It wouldn't surprise me a bit to see this argument being made.
In 1 Cor 13:1, Paul says speaking in tongues can be a language of men or of angels.

On another point, Paul clearly says the main reason for spiritual gifts is for the edification of the church, not the individual.
Paul also clearly says that when a person speaks in tongues, the person is edified (1 Cor 14:4). If a person speaks in tongues aloud in the church, he must interpret so the church can be edified.
 
Jun 20, 2022
6,460
1,330
113
It is ironic because I am willing to bet you have never really done a deep dive into the opposing view with good exegesis and looking at the historical context.

Believe as you will, Corinthians is letter written to a church which had many earthly languages and it was causing confusion among the members and Paul was given instruction on how to deal with the various languages being spoken.

I just think it is sad how people are duped. As @Kavik has clearly articulated this phenomena of speaking "in tongues" has been closely examined and researched, it is not a language it is a string of meaningless morphemes.

Language has structure and is organized it is not free vocalization.
we know your place:

38 If anyone does not recognize this, he is not recognized.
 
Dec 21, 2020
1,825
474
83
It is ironic because I am willing to bet you have never really done a deep dive into the opposing view with good exegesis and looking at the historical context.
You would lose.

Believe as you will,
I will believe what the Bible says.

Corinthians is letter written to a church which had many earthly languages and it was causing confusion among the members and Paul was given instruction on how to deal with the various languages being spoken.
Paul was dealing with the proper usage of the manifestations of tongues, interpretation, and prophecy in the church (in meetings).

I just think it is sad how people are duped.
So do I.

As @Kavik has clearly articulated this phenomena of speaking "in tongues" has been closely examined and researched, it is not a language it is a string of meaningless morphemes.
Kavik is an unbeliever.

Language has structure and is organized it is not free vocalization.
Speaking in tongues has structure.
 

Fundaamental

Well-known member
Mar 17, 2023
3,289
421
83
Jesus Christ is not the subject of the first few verses of John 1.
I know but Jesus is the Subject of the second verse, which makes Jesus being with God in the beginning.

And not Jesus being the father 😊
 

HeIsHere

Well-known member
May 21, 2022
5,900
2,288
113
1 Corinthians 14:10-12 is clearly talking about human languages:

"There are, it may be, so many kinds of languages in the world, and none of them is without significance. Therefore, if I do not know the meaning of the language, I shall be a foreigner to him who speaks, and he who speaks will be a foreigner to me. Even so you, since you are zealous for spiritual gifts, let it be for the edification of the church that you seek to excel."

He's talking about "languages in the world," not angelic languages. What a person would have to do is say Paul was using earthly languages as an example but was really talking about heavenly languages. It wouldn't surprise me a bit to see this argument being made.

On another point, Paul clearly says the main reason for spiritual gifts is for the edification of the church, not the individual.
Yes good point, "languages in the world" is clearer.

They were not "known earthly languages" (my words) to the people in the congregation, I was using that phrasing in oppositon to the idea it was a supernatural language.

I like clarity! :)
 
Dec 21, 2020
1,825
474
83
I know but Jesus is the Subject of the second verse, which makes Jesus being with God in the beginning.

And not Jesus being the father 😊
Again, Jesus Christ is not the subject of the first few verses of John 1. This includes verse 2.
 
Jun 20, 2022
6,460
1,330
113
Mary was Jesus' literal, actual mother. It is through Mary that Jesus Christ was a blood descendant of David. On the cross, Jesus was telling John to take care of Mary.
no she wasn't!

hahahaha

women don't have seed, in the sense of Genesis 3

try again