problem related to praying in tongues

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27 Then he said to Thomas, “Put your finger here, and see my hands; and put out your hand, and place it in my side. Do not disbelieve, but believe.”
28 Thomas answered him, “My Lord and my God!”

is Thomas committing idolatry?
 
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God made Jesus both Lord and Christ:

Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
Christ only means Anointed.
by your reasoning, you're still making a non God your LORD.
 
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2 Peter: To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ


is Peter committing idolatry?
he just called Jesus, God and Savior?
It's an issue of translation and punctuation, which are often done according to a person's theology. There are many non-Trinitarian ways to translate the phrase:
  • “of our God and the Saviour Jesus Christ” (ASV)
  • “of our God, and the Saviour Jesus Christ” (Concordant Literal New Testament)
  • “of our God and of our Deliverer Yeshua the Messiah” (CJB)
  • “of our God and of our Saviour Jesus Christ” (Weymouth)
  • “of our God, and [our] Saviour Jesus Christ” (Rotherham; margin)
  • “of God and our Savior Jesus Christ” (Noah Webster Bible)
  • “of our God, and of Jesus our Lord” (The Better Version of the New Testament)
 

Kavik

Senior Member
Mar 25, 2017
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each example you've provided, do you know the natural language of each example?
There's no natural language - it's all textbook tongues-speech.

Examples 1,2,3 and 5 - speakers were native American English speakers. Example 4, speaker's native language was (I believe) a Bantu language.
 
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Christ only means Anointed.
by your reasoning, you're still making a non God your LORD.
Jesus Christ is the man approved BY God (Acts 2:22).

God made Jesus to be Lord (Acts 2:36).

We have one God and we have one Lord (Eph 4:5-6)

Do not be surprised if I get banned from here (I won't be). If it happens, it happens. Then you won't be bothered by my "heretical views" anymore.
 
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God made Jesus both Lord and Christ:

Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
why did the Apostles Baptize in Jesus Name only?

you can only use the Name of God to Baptize with!

Paul, Peter, Phillip, the New Testament in Paul's writing said they Baptize in ONE NAME.

that NAME has to be GOD!

and the Name they used was JESUS.

by proxy, that means the Apostles believed JESUS is GOD!
 
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why did the Apostles Baptize in Jesus Name only?

you can only use the Name of God to Baptize with!
Scripture?

Paul, Peter, Phillip, the New Testament in Paul's writing said they Baptize in ONE NAME.

that NAME has to be GOD!
Scripture?

and the Name they used was JESUS.

by proxy, that means the Apostles believed JESUS is GOD!
If you start with a faulty premise, you'll get a faulty conclusion.
 
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Scripture?


Scripture?


If you start with a faulty premise, you'll get a faulty conclusion.
you know what Scripture.
the one you always avoid.

i have been skimming a JW website that provides answers to my questions and your answers are similar to theirs, but with your own spin.

you are not one of US!
 
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you know what Scripture.
the one you always avoid.
Which one is that?

i have been skimming a JW website that provides answers to my questions and your answers are similar to theirs, but with your own spin.
I'm not a JW. JWs think that Jesus Christ is Michael the archangel. I don't.

you are not one of US!
John 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

I believe that from the depths of my soul. I hope you do too.
 
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you are the first ever REFORMED upbringing I've met who turned to the similar ways of the JW's [without claiming Jesus is Michael].
a Reformed to an almost JW. it would be more reasonable to think you were JW, who reject Jesus is both Michael and God. but none the less, you reject Jesus as God.

you even use same Verses JW's do.
 

GRACE_ambassador

Well-known member
Feb 22, 2021
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Midwest
op: problem with praying in tongues?

First, No problem = we are not going "forbid speaking in tongues," all who wish
to do so may now proceed to continue to 'do as you see fit'...

But, we do have questions about problems "being Led By The Holy Spirit"?:

1) Is it a problem, being invited ( my personal 'babe-In-Christ' experience )
to a service ↑ where "all stand up and speak in tongues at once"?
Was this not disobedience to God?:

a) "If any man speak in a tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three,​
and that by course; and let one interpret. But if there be no interpreter,​
let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak [ in tongues? ] to
himself, and to God." (1Co 14:27-28) Not forbidden ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ , Correct?

+? what of the unlearned babe-In-Christ?:

b) "If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and​
all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned,​
or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad?" (1Co 14:23)​

Is this so-called "led by The Spirit," not Actually Confusion, of which?:

c) "...God is not the author of confusion..." (1Co 14:33)?​

2) Makes no sense to "reveal to our apostle of Grace," Paul that something is
"going to cease" if "that something" is going to continue until He Comes Back,
eh? Did The LORD Make "an error" in Doing So, Or, we kindly ask all:

3) Why is not God's Pure And Preserved Word, Which He "Has Magnified Above All His
Holy Name"
= "That Perfect Which Has Come," and thus the 'sign gifts have ceased?
Make sense?

----------------

Personally, I do wish to cease all my sinning against a Holy God - how about you?

Amen.

Extra study bonus may be helpful, Encouraging And Edifying:

When Did ( the 'sign' gifts ) tongues Cease?
 
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Which one is that?


I'm not a JW. JWs think that Jesus Christ is Michael the archangel. I don't.


John 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

I believe that from the depths of my soul. I hope you do too.
Matthew 28:19 Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.

in the name is SINGULAR

so, what is this NAME that is the SAME NAME for the Father-Son-Holy Spirit?
 
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you are the first ever REFORMED upbringing
I was young. I did not know what "reformed" was when I was at the Presbyterian church. :)

I've met who turned to the similar ways of the JW's [without claiming Jesus is Michael].
a Reformed to an almost JW. it would be more reasonable to think you were JW, who reject Jesus is both Michael and God.
I'm not "similar to a JW," I'm not "almost a JW." I realize you want to put me in a bucket of "undesirables," but please find a different bucket.

but none the less, you reject Jesus as God.
I believe the Bible.

you even use same Verses JW's do.
The JWs aren't wrong on -everything-. If you want more "dirt," the JWs are also correct about what happens when a person dies. They cease to exist, and will remain dead until either the rapture or one of the upcoming resurrections.
 
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Matthew 28:19 Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.

in the name is SINGULAR

so, what is this NAME that is the SAME NAME for the Father-Son-Holy Spirit?
well, let's use the only 2 logical answers here:

GOD!
but if God is the Singular Name, it means the Father-Son-Holy Spirit is GOD

we know the Name is not God....but...it could be, but we know Jesus is saying something specific here.

we know this, because they Baptized in Jesus Name after this


what about JESUS?

ohhhhhhhhhh, but if Jesus is the NAME of the Father, the Son, the Holy Spirit, that means JESUS is God
 
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Matthew 28:19 Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.

in the name is SINGULAR

so, what is this NAME that is the SAME NAME for the Father-Son-Holy Spirit?
“name.” A study of the biblical culture and language shows that in this context the word “name” primarily stood for “authority,” and doing something in the “name” of a person or persons who had great authority was very common. In fact, acting “in the name of” is still common today, and the Macmillan Dictionary says that to act “in the name of” is “using the authority given by someone or something.” Biblical examples are very numerous and space allows for only a few examples, but Deuteronomy 18:5-7 speak of serving in the “name” (authority) of the Lord; Deuteronomy 18:22 speaks of prophesying in the “name” (authority) of the Lord; 1 Samuel 17:45 says David attacked Goliath in the “name” (authority) of the Lord, and he blessed the people in the “name” (authority) of the Lord; and 2 Kings 2:24 says Elisha cursed troublemakers in the “name” (authority) of the Lord.

In Acts, the apostles baptized in the “name” of Jesus Christ because it meant all his authority. Similarly, Paul rhetorically asked the Corinthians if they were baptized “in the name of Paul” (1 Cor. 1:13), which of course they were not because Paul had no power or authority to save anyone. These scriptures are only a small sample of the examples that could be given, but they make the point. Also, although there are other customs involving the word “name,” authority is one that is most applicable in Matthew 28:19.

It was also part of the customary use of the word “name” that it was often used in the singular even when there was more than one person involved. It is sometimes claimed that because Matthew 28:19 says the “name” (singular) of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, that the three must be one God, but that is not true, as a study of the word “name” in the Bible and biblical culture shows. The word “name” in the singular was often used of two or more. For example, Genesis 48:16 (KJV) says, “…the name of my fathers Abraham and Isaac.” Some modern versions read, “names of my fathers,” but the Hebrew text uses the singular, “name.” We see the same distributive use of the word “name” in verses such as 1 Samuel 17:13, where the “name” of Jesse’s three oldest sons was Eliab, then Abinadab, then Shammah. No one claims that the three eldest sons of Jesse, the father of David, were somehow “one,” it is just that the Bible sometimes uses “name” in a distributive sense.

The word “name” is also used in the singular when speaking of more than one god. Exodus 23:13 (KJV) says not to mention the “name of other gods” (cp. Deut. 18:20; Josh. 23:7). We should note that although the Hebrew text uses the singular word “name,” some modern versions ignore that fact and translate the Hebrew word as “names” (cp. HCSB; ESV; NET; NIV), but other modern versions leave “name” singular (cp. NAB; NASB; NLT; JPS; NJB). 2 Samuel 7:9 has the singular word “name” as a collective singular that refers to a group of people. The King James Version reads, “And I [God]was with thee [David]…and have made thee a great name, like unto the name of the great men that are in the earth” (most modern versions have translated the second “name” in the verse as the plural noun “names,” but the Hebrew text is singular and reads “name,” and the same is true in 1 Chron. 17:8). We also see the singular word “name” used to refer to a group of people in Proverbs 10:7: “…the name of the wicked will rot” (NASB). There are English versions that change “name” to “names,” but in the Hebrew text “name” is singular. Also, the NET and the Complete Jewish Bible translate the word “name” as “reputation” in Proverbs 10:7, but the Hebrew word is “name,” even though a person’s name and reputation were intertwined. In concluding this discussion on “name,” we should see that “name” referred to the name and the authority and reputation of the one or ones whose name was being used, and also that a common custom was to use the word “name” in the singular even when it referred to a group.

Also, although it is sometimes stated that in order to be baptized into something, that something has to be God, that reasoning is false, because Scripture states that the Israelites were “baptized into Moses” (1 Cor. 10:2).

In Acts, the apostles baptized in the “name,” the authority, of Jesus Christ.

^^^ https://www.revisedenglishversion.com/Matthew/28/19 ^^^
 
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“name.” A study of the biblical culture and language shows that in this context the word “name” primarily stood for “authority,” and doing something in the “name” of a person or persons who had great authority was very common. In fact, acting “in the name of” is still common today, and the Macmillan Dictionary says that to act “in the name of” is “using the authority given by someone or something.” Biblical examples are very numerous and space allows for only a few examples, but Deuteronomy 18:5-7 speak of serving in the “name” (authority) of the Lord; Deuteronomy 18:22 speaks of prophesying in the “name” (authority) of the Lord; 1 Samuel 17:45 says David attacked Goliath in the “name” (authority) of the Lord, and he blessed the people in the “name” (authority) of the Lord; and 2 Kings 2:24 says Elisha cursed troublemakers in the “name” (authority) of the Lord.

In Acts, the apostles baptized in the “name” of Jesus Christ because it meant all his authority. Similarly, Paul rhetorically asked the Corinthians if they were baptized “in the name of Paul” (1 Cor. 1:13), which of course they were not because Paul had no power or authority to save anyone. These scriptures are only a small sample of the examples that could be given, but they make the point. Also, although there are other customs involving the word “name,” authority is one that is most applicable in Matthew 28:19.

It was also part of the customary use of the word “name” that it was often used in the singular even when there was more than one person involved. It is sometimes claimed that because Matthew 28:19 says the “name” (singular) of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, that the three must be one God, but that is not true, as a study of the word “name” in the Bible and biblical culture shows. The word “name” in the singular was often used of two or more. For example, Genesis 48:16 (KJV) says, “…the name of my fathers Abraham and Isaac.” Some modern versions read, “names of my fathers,” but the Hebrew text uses the singular, “name.” We see the same distributive use of the word “name” in verses such as 1 Samuel 17:13, where the “name” of Jesse’s three oldest sons was Eliab, then Abinadab, then Shammah. No one claims that the three eldest sons of Jesse, the father of David, were somehow “one,” it is just that the Bible sometimes uses “name” in a distributive sense.

The word “name” is also used in the singular when speaking of more than one god. Exodus 23:13 (KJV) says not to mention the “name of other gods” (cp. Deut. 18:20; Josh. 23:7). We should note that although the Hebrew text uses the singular word “name,” some modern versions ignore that fact and translate the Hebrew word as “names” (cp. HCSB; ESV; NET; NIV), but other modern versions leave “name” singular (cp. NAB; NASB; NLT; JPS; NJB). 2 Samuel 7:9 has the singular word “name” as a collective singular that refers to a group of people. The King James Version reads, “And I [God]was with thee [David]…and have made thee a great name, like unto the name of the great men that are in the earth” (most modern versions have translated the second “name” in the verse as the plural noun “names,” but the Hebrew text is singular and reads “name,” and the same is true in 1 Chron. 17:8). We also see the singular word “name” used to refer to a group of people in Proverbs 10:7: “…the name of the wicked will rot” (NASB). There are English versions that change “name” to “names,” but in the Hebrew text “name” is singular. Also, the NET and the Complete Jewish Bible translate the word “name” as “reputation” in Proverbs 10:7, but the Hebrew word is “name,” even though a person’s name and reputation were intertwined. In concluding this discussion on “name,” we should see that “name” referred to the name and the authority and reputation of the one or ones whose name was being used, and also that a common custom was to use the word “name” in the singular even when it referred to a group.

Also, although it is sometimes stated that in order to be baptized into something, that something has to be God, that reasoning is false, because Scripture states that the Israelites were “baptized into Moses” (1 Cor. 10:2).

In Acts, the apostles baptized in the “name,” the authority, of Jesus Christ.

^^^ https://www.revisedenglishversion.com/Matthew/28/19 ^^^
YOU STILL AVOIDED that the NAME of the Father-Son-Holy Spirit is same name.

WHAT IS THAT NAME?
 
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First of ALL, Mathew was originally written in Hebrew: here's what the Hebrew claims [this comes from JEROME 3rd Century]

and the Church Fathers said they BUTCHERED the GREEK.

so, any classified reason you offer is auto Null and Void!