Not Under Law
"What does 'Under Law' mean?"
To be under the Sinai Covenant's terms and conditions.
It promises life to the righteous, and curses the unrighteous.
However, qualify as "righteous" means "perfectly righteous".
Just like a fighter is only "undefeated" if he has no losses.
When there is a single sin, you're cursed.
Who is "Under Law"?
Only the Jew is "under Law"; the Gentile is "without Law".
Thus only the Jew is "set free", by faith, from his legally binding obligation.
The Gentile is not "set free", by faith, since he has no obligation.
The same Law stipulates Jews are free upon dying.
The believing Jew shares in Christ's death, thus is set free.
"Through the Law I died to the Law": it's by the Law's dictate he is free.
"Oh, yeah? You're not 'under Law'? Can you commit idolatry?"
The Law was a means of righteousness, but was weak, relying on sinful flesh.
We are not under Law, but we ARE under Grace.
Those who walk by the Spirit do fulfill the Law's righteous requirement.
"'Under' in 'under Law' means 'condemned by', not 'under authority'."
The Greek for "under" means "under jurisdiction".
If 'under' means "condemned by", then we're "condemned by Grace".
How would that help us not be mastered/enslaved by Sin?
Not being "under Law" prevents that, since the Law is the strength of Sin.
Accordingly, the sketch of the unsaved Jew in Ro 7 shows him mastered by Sin.
"'Under Law' refers to something else other than Moses's Law--rabbinic Law, etc."
What is quoted after the following statement?
"You who desire to be under Law, do you not hear the Law?"
Is it rabbinic law? Some "abuse" of the Law?
No, Paul elaborates on the Abrahamic story.
That's in the Torah, so we know what "Law" Paul refers to.
"God's Law is eternal like God! If the Law changes God changes!"
Incest used to be a holy command. What else does "multiply" mean?
God made all mankind from Adam--brothers and sisters had to copulate.
Today, God prohibits incest--God's holy command is now God's prohibition.
Torah permitted "vows"; today, Jesus says they're "of the evil one".
Torah permitted *"any cause" divorce; today, Jesus says it's "adultery".
(*It got to the point where a Jew could divorce his wife for burning his food!)
So on and so forth. We know the Torah is full of such *concessions.
(*"You can beat your slave to death if he doesn't die the same day"!)
"But Paul proved to James that he kept Torah and walked orderly!"
Rahab was justified by a deed of faith. What was it? Oh, yeah: Lying.
"Do not bear false witness against your neighbor" is not "do not lie".
David also lied to the Philistine Kings.
Jesus said "be shrewd as serpents, innocent as doves".
So, Paul was innocent in his shrewdness.
He wasn't lying for personal gain, but for salvation of souls.
He also lied before the Sanhedrin: "I am a Pharisee!"
Was Paul a "Pharisee"? Well... yes and no.
So, did Paul walk orderly and keep the Law?
Well... yes and no.
He kept the righteous requirement by walking in the Spirit.
He did not cast a stumbling block before the blind.
Instead, he blended in, became a Jew to Jews, so they could believe.
"I became a Jew to the Jews, to those under Law as on under Law."
So, are there Jews in Jerusalem in 1st century AD? Yes!
So, does Paul have to keep from blowing his cover? Yes!
And the Law demands his death to the Law upon his dying.
So his deadness to the Law is IN ACCORDANCE WITH THE LAW.
So, tell me, is Paul "walking orderly and keeping Torah"? Yes!
So, it's not so bad he is "shrewd" and "proves it".
And, again, we know "vows" are offensive to God.
Any vows he seemed to have taken were artificial, for the Jews.
He did not take them "before God", seriously, that would've been sin.
Much more could be said, but this should get the discussion going.
--except that there are "Black Hebrew Israelites", in their most profound ignorance, lying on the topic, so I'd like to submit, for all your consideration, some evidence to the contrary.
