The truth about the Rapture

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,003
13,723
113
#22
This is very well laid out. If you put it together, congratulations. If someone else did they are to be commended. Now the real issue is how come so many Christians are so confused about these two important events? My guess is that they are following the doctrines of men.

One thing which could be added is that at the Rapture Christ comes PERSONALLY for His Bride, and does not send out any angels. But at the Second Coming He sends out His angels to gather the elect believing remnant of Israel at that time.
 

PennEd

Senior Member
Apr 22, 2013
13,411
8,943
113
#23
This is very well laid out. If you put it together, congratulations. If someone else did they are to be commended.
I've seen variations of these charts over the years. And I agree with you, that when you put the verses in a side by side comparison, between the Rapture and Jesus Second Coming, it is almost impossible to argue against.

And that is just what I googled. "What is the difference between the Rapture and Jesus' Second Coming. So it wasn't me that actually did the legwork. There's a bunch of these that slightly vary. I'm sure this one is not all inclusive as you point out.
Now the real issue is how come so many Christians are so confused about these two important events? My guess is that they are following the doctrines of men.
It's hard for some to put the whole Counsel of God's Word into context. So the confusion is understandable. Add in that many may have been taught this way, (Doctrine of men) since they were young.

I'm sure you're familiar that It's not just the NT that talks about the Rapture. The OT uses many similitudes, or patterns to show it.

Like Enoch getting Raptured before the Flood.

Or Lot being removed before the Destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah. The cities COULD'NT be destroyed until Lot was removed.

Rahab was a type of Tribulation Saint similitude.

There was no point at all for the 2 "spies" to go to Jericho. How did their intel impact God's Plan of destruction for the city?
Their only purpose was to deliver Rahab and all those that were kept safe with her DURING the destruction of the city. Same as will happen to some of the Tribulation Saints that don't get their head chopped off by the AC.


Curious as to why so many of these anti-Rapture threads keep popping up though.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,003
13,723
113
#24
Curious as to why so many of these anti-Rapture threads keep popping up though.
Satan hates the Rapture, which is the culmination of salvation. It includes transformation, perfection, and glorification (1 John 3:1-3; Rom 8:29,30). Satan hates salvation altogether.
 

ResidentAlien

Well-known member
Apr 21, 2021
8,046
3,427
113
#25
That's incorrect reasoning (i.e. not what it would be saying).

Rather, "the day of the Lord" [Trib] will not be present if not shall have come "the Rapture [The Departure] FIRST"
No, it's not incorrect; it makes perfect sense. It doesn't say the tribulation, it says the "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him." At the time Paul was writing, what would be the next appearing of the Lord? The rapture of course. Everyone would have understood that.

Then Paul says not to be troubled about any letter that may have said the day of Christ had already come. Some manuscripts say day of the Lord; but either way, the meaning is the same. Clearly, the "day" refers to the coming of the Lord and our gather to Him. That's the plain meaning of the text. The way you explain it actually makes no sense and twists the plain meaning of the text.
 

ResidentAlien

Well-known member
Apr 21, 2021
8,046
3,427
113
#26
Just disregard above where I said: "No, it's not incorrect; it makes perfect sense." I agree that to say the rapture can't come unless the rapture comes first is faulty reasoning. I asked the question to simply point out the fact that apostatis in this verse doesn't mean "the rapture."
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,646
2,049
113
#27
TheDivineWatermark said:
That's incorrect reasoning (i.e. not what it would be saying).

Rather, "the day of the Lord" [Trib] will not be present if not shall have come "the Rapture [The Departure] FIRST"
No, it's not incorrect; it makes perfect sense. It doesn't say the tribulation, it says the "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him." At the time Paul was writing, what would be the next appearing of the Lord? The rapture of course. Everyone would have understood that.
I understand what you're conveying.

I think you maybe missed what I was saying.

I'm saying that you have completely LEFT OUT the Subject of the false claim that Paul is cautioning about in verse 2 (others "[purporting] that THE DAY OF THE LORD is present / is already here [perfect indicative; transitive verb in the Grk]")... "that day" (v.3a) will not [be present], if not shall have come THE RAPTURE / THE DEPARTURE [apostasis] [verse 1's Subject] *FIRST*...




Which is exactly the point verses 1 and 2 alone (without even needing v.3's elaboration) is already saying:

--we beseech you brethren BY the fact of our Rapture
--not to be shaken in mind or ALARMED / θροέω throéō, thro-eh'-o; from θρέομαι thréomai to wail; to clamor if anyone tries to claim "THAT THE DAY OF THE LORD [TRIB] IS ALREADY HERE [PERFECT indicative; transitive verb in Grk]"... (it wasn't! and it can't!)









[v.3a's "that day" refers back to the FALSE CLAIM v.2--the HORIZONTAL Subject, not to verse 1's VERTICAL one that Paul is BRINGING TO BEAR on the "false claim" of v.2! By losing track of the GRAMMAR of this passage (and by mis-defining WHAT the false claim was about) many people CONFLATE these TWO DISTINCT ITEMS (as you are doing here)]
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,646
2,049
113
#28
about any letter that may have said the day of Christ had already come. Some manuscripts say day of the Lord; but either way, the meaning is the same. Clearly, the "day" refers to the coming of the Lord and our gather to Him. That's the plain meaning of the text.
No, the Subject of the FALSE CLAIM (v.2) is that the Day of the Lord is already here (i.e. THE TRIBULATION PERIOD--horizontal TIME PERIOD [on the earth]);

Paul had already made clear (in 1Th5:1-3) that the Thessalonians "KNOW PERFECTLY" *what* the Day of the Lord IS (and that its ARRIVAL is SUDDEN)--Today's readers DO NOT know what "the Day of the Lord" is, incorrectly believing it is SOLELY Christ's SECOND COMING to the earth (it ISN'T [isn't that ALONE]!)










It STARTS with the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR; 1Th5:3]" that Jesus had already spoken about in His Olivet Discourse (SAME WORD, PLURAL), and those start WELL-PRIOR-TO His Second Coming to the earth in vv.29-31 (way back in vv.4-8... and which are EQUIVALENT the "SEALS" of Rev6! [the INITIAL "SEAL" being ON DAY ONE of the 7-yr period])
 
Last edited: