The point is Paul's question, in and of itself, refutes the idea that everyone receives the Holy Ghost automatically upon belief in the gospel message.
Quite the opposite, Paul's question anticipates one to have the Spirit if one believes otherwise why ask? If you know they won't have the Spirit, there is no need to ask the question.
Believers understand they will speak in tongues when the Holy Ghost comes to dwell inside. Whereas in the case of unbelievers, tongues has the ability to draw them to the truth.
How do you suppose Philip and the Samaritans knew they had not received the Holy Ghost? (Acts 8:12-17)
Also, The individuals in Acts 19 did not automatically receive the Holy Ghost upon hearing the gospel. The 12 received the Holy Ghost, as revealed through speaking in tongues, after Paul laid hand upon them.
Only believers who do not understand the purpose of tongues will be deceived into thinking they have to speak in tongues in order to know they have the Spirit. Tongues is a sign to unbelievers which they refuse to hear, so no, it does not lead them to the truth.
1 Corinthians 14:21
In the law it is written: “With
men of other tongues and other lips I will speak to this people; And yet, for all that,
they will not hear Me,” says the Lord.
And it is taken from here:
Is.28:11&12
For with stammering lips and another tongue
He will speak to this people,
12 To whom He said, “This
is the rest
with which
You may cause the weary to rest,”
And, “This
is the refreshing”;
Yet
they would not hear.
Who said the Acts 8 crowd didn't know? Simon thought the laying on of hands was the way to get the Spirit and great power too. It's what happens when you don't know the promises of God and trust Him to deliver on His word.
You keep taking two instances when the laying on of hands was involved yet ignore the countless believers who received the Spirit without any sign or function of another except the preaching of the Gospel. Why is that?
Be guided by scripture. Rightly dividing the word reveals:
1. Upon being indwelt by the Holy Spirit individuals speak in tongues as initially revealed in Acts 2:4, 33. And further confirmed in scripture. (10:43-48, 19:1-7)
2. The Spiritual gift of tongues is but one that can flow from those who have been indwelt by the Holy Spirit. This gift is for edification of the church body. The message given by God is spoken in an unknown tongue. The message is then spoken in the known language by a person via the gift of interpretation. Both speaking in tongues and the interpretation are miraculous manifestations of the Spirit. (1 Cor. 12)
3. Those indwelt by the Spirit pray in unknown tongues. Paul referenced this in 1 Cor. 14:2, 4, 14-15, and said do not stop people from speaking in tongues. (verse 39)
I did not understand there was a distinction until God used me to speak a message in tongues in a church setting. The two experiences definitely differ. I know this to be true because I speak in tongues in prayer on a regular basis, whereas the tongues experience in church happened only one time years ago.
1. To what purpose did they speak in tongues? You keep ignoring the purpose.
2. Again you ignore the purpose. It was a sign to unbelieving Jews they were rejecting their Messiah and would be severely disciplined just as they were in Isaiah's day by the Assyrians. This time it would be by Rome in 70AD.
3. Again, it's purpose is not prayer. The reality is, when a believer spoke in tongues it was an unknown language to them and if there were no hearers in the vicinity who spoke that language or if there was no interpreter, Paul basically told them to shut up. There are not two different types of tongue gifts. That is the folly of not dividing the word within context. The gifts were not given for self edification and our experience is not what we measure scripture by.
The gift ceased being given in 70AD for Israel the nation had their last call and it was no longer necessary to give them a sign.
