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Genez

Junior Member
Oct 12, 2017
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Yes Easter is invented by tyndale.l snd not a catholic dogma but hidden facts to the many.
It does not belong in the Word of God. If it appears as Easter, it can not be the Word of God.

Jesus is our Passover lamb!
Not some bunny rabbit or colored eggs!

Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye
are unleavened. For even Christ, our Passover, is sacrificed for us.
.
 
Nov 28, 2023
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Where do you get your stuff from?

The Danish word for Easter is påske, and "Happy Easter" in Danish is God påske!. Påske is pronounced "goo POHS-keh".
This does not really have anything to do with the chart, and its accuracy.

You said:
And, the Danish word for Passover is the same we use in Judaism. Pesach.
No. The chart is correct. The Danish word for Passover is also "påske",
Jews believe it is "Pesach." Maybe there is a Danish group of people who interpret it this way as the Jews (That I am not aware of), but that does not mean the chart is incorrect. I double checked it with several sources.

. Ross analyzes the use of Easter. He does so using pre-King James translations. Those were Catholic translations that the King James followed after. Paganism snuck in via the Catholic Church. King James scholarship did not see the need for correction.
According to the Oxford English Dictionary, “Easter” has a long history of being used as a reference to the Jewish “Passover,” in addition to being used as a reference to the dawn/day of Christ’s resurrection. The KJV Today’s article completely overlooks this important and extremely relevant fact. The second definition provide for “Easter” in the OED reads as follows: “2. = Passover n. 1. Now only in Jewish Easter or with other contextual indication.” That is to say that the second definition of “Easter” is equivalent to the first definition of “Passover,” according to the OED which is: “The major Jewish spring festival which commemorates the liberation of the People of Israel from Egyptian bondage, lasting seven days (in Israel) or eight days (in the Diaspora) from the 15th day of Nisan.” Additionally, the Middle English Dictionary, which supplies us with examples of the word “Easter’s” usage in the 14th and 15th centuries confirms that “Easter” can be defined as “the Jewish Passover.”19 Therefore, ample historical evidence exists from multiple English language resources that “Easter” was used to refer to the Jewish feast day before the word “Passover” was coined by Tyndale in 1530 in the early 16th century

Ross, Bryan. Don't Passover Easter: A New Defense of Easter in Acts 12:4 (pp. 23-24). Dispensational Publishing House. Kindle Edition.

Also, we just have your word that Paganism snuck in via the Catholic Church with the word "Easter."
Where is your scholarly proof or evidence of this in history?

You said:
Modern translation have corrected it.

You got to keep in mind I was a Jew. To read that Jesus was crucified on Easter made it look like Christianity is a form of paganism.. And stupid. It's bad witness. But, that don't bother you.
Again, you just state things without any actual sources and ruffle your feathers as if that is sufficient.

Speaking of the Catholic Church and Modern Bibles, there are 14 RCC ideas promoted in them.

See page 22 of this PDF here:

https://www.keithpiper.org/storage/books/NIV-Omissions-Cimatu-7July2018-pdf.pdf

Note: I have catalogued more of these Catholic ideas in my own research, but this should be sufficient to show you the Modern Bibles are not innocent here. Are you aware that a Catholic Cardinal named Carlo Maria Martini had worked on the Nestle and Aland text in 1975? Bruce Metzger presented a copy of the Revised Standard Version (RSV) Bible to Pope John XXIII in 1960. This gesture was part of an effort toward ecumenism, aiming to foster better relations and understanding between Protestant and Catholic communities. The Nestle and Aland 27th edition comes right out and tells you that it is supervised by the Vatican. The New American Catholic Bible (1970) has a dictionary in it. In this Catholic dictionary it states that the KJV is a forbidden book to read for its Catholic members. Granted, this has changed in recent years because the RCC now has a Catholic KJV, but at one time they really hated the KJV. The Catholics almost destroyed the KJV and the translators with a super bomb during the translation process. This is known as the gunpowder plot.


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Nov 28, 2023
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It does not belong in the Word of God. If it appears as Easter, it can not be the Word of God.

Jesus is our Passover lamb!
Not some bunny rabbit or colored eggs!

Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye
are unleavened. For even Christ, our Passover, is sacrificed for us.
.
This is an example where pagan culture steals a word from the Bible and makes it their own. You have been conditioned by your pagan culture repeatedly like brainwashing to see it that way. But if you look at older dictionaries, you will then begin to realize things are not what they appear to be (back at a certain point in time in the past). The meaning of words can change with the passage of time.


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Genez

Junior Member
Oct 12, 2017
2,687
391
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According to the Oxford English Dictionary, “Easter” has a long history of being used as a reference to the Jewish “Passover,” in addition to being used as a reference to the dawn/day of Christ’s resurrection. The KJV Today’s article completely overlooks this important and extremely relevant fact. The second definition provide for “Easter” in the OED reads as follows: “2. = Passover n. 1. Now only in Jewish Easter or with other contextual indication.” That is to say that the second definition of “Easter” is equivalent to the first definition of “Passover,” according to the OED which is: “The major Jewish spring festival which commemorates the liberation of the People of Israel from Egyptian bondage, lasting seven days (in Israel) or eight days (in the Diaspora) from the 15th day of Nisan.” Additionally, the Middle English Dictionary, which supplies us with examples of the word “Easter’s” usage in the 14th and 15th centuries confirms that “Easter” can be defined as “the Jewish Passover.”19 Therefore, ample historical evidence exists from multiple English language resources that “Easter” was used to refer to the Jewish feast day before the word “Passover” was coined by Tyndale in 1530 in the early 16th century..
According to the Oxford English Dictionary, "Easter" does indeed have a long history of being used as a reference to the Jewish "Passover," although the English word itself does not directly derive from the Hebrew word for Passover; instead, it originates from the Anglo-Saxon goddess of spring, Eostre, but the connection is seen in how many other European languages use words directly related to Passover to refer to Easter.

The NT was JEWISH thinking. Easter would have been forbidden.
For it originates from the Anglo-Saxon goddess of spring, Eostre,

It's stupid to tell a Jew that.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,325
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Again, such ad hominem attacks really does not mean anything. Show me evidence your belief has any kind of backing in the Bible or has superior doctrine to the KJV.
Ad hominem attacks are literally “to the man”. I haven’t attacked you personally other than calling you the hypocrite you are. I can criticize your ideas all day long but that’s not ad hominem.

As for showing evidence, I will only do that with claims I have made… not with what you think.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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But if God is preserved His Word by His divine hand (Which lines up with what His Word says), then what you propose is only for the human corrupted texts out there and not God's incorruptible Word (1 Peter 1:23). After all, Scripture cannot be broken (John 10:35). Do you believe these things as they are plainly written in Scripture? That is what faith is all about. Without faith, it is impossible to please God (See: Hebrews 11:6).
If God’s Word is “incorruptible” and “cannot be broken”, then humans can’t corrupt it. ;)
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Because you are against the foundation of the faith (i.e., the Bible, the KJV).
Let’s put that heresy to rest right now. The KJV IS NOT the foundation of the faith.

The atoning death and resurrection of Jesus Christ are the foundation of the Christian faith. Period!
 
Nov 28, 2023
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If God’s Word is “incorruptible” and “cannot be broken”, then humans can’t corrupt it. ;)
No, it means that there is simply an incorruptible line of His Word, and there is another line of Bibles that are corrupted.
But we have been over this with real world examples and you still do not either get it, or accept it.


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Nov 28, 2023
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Let’s put that heresy to rest right now. The KJV IS NOT the foundation of the faith.

The atoning death and resurrection of Jesus Christ are the foundation of the Christian faith. Period!
You would not know of the gospel if it was not for Scripture telling you about it (See: 1 Corinthians 15:1-4).


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Nov 17, 2015
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It does not belong in the Word of God. If it appears as Easter, it can not be the Word of God.

Jesus is our Passover lamb!
Not some bunny rabbit or colored eggs!

Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye
are unleavened. For even Christ, our Passover, is sacrificed for us.
.
I dont really have a problem with the word passover but you have a problem with the word easter. It appears your lack of an understanding of the word. It so happens you allign with a wrong one.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,325
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But again, even if this was an error (Which I do not believe it is), this would still be straining at gnats
Gnats in your food make it imperfect, unsuitable for eating. Wrong words in the KJV make it imperfect, unsuitable for trusting.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,325
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The only embarrassment is the Westcott and Hort Movement that exists today with their never ending shape shifter Bibles.
You keep slandering Westcott and Hort despite the fact that nobody has stood up for them.
 
Nov 28, 2023
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According to the Oxford English Dictionary, "Easter" does indeed have a long history of being used as a reference to the Jewish "Passover," although the English word itself does not directly derive from the Hebrew word for Passover; instead, it originates from the Anglo-Saxon goddess of spring, Eostre, but the connection is seen in how many other European languages use words directly related to Passover to refer to Easter.

The NT was JEWISH thinking. Easter would have been forbidden.
For it originates from the Anglo-Saxon goddess of spring, Eostre,

It's stupid to tell a Jew that.
You are talking about a people who killed their own Messiah. Surely they can make mistakes on other things.
Anyway, getting back onto the meat of the matter:

The WestSaxon Gospels clinch the argument that “Easter” was not an exclusively pagan word as well as prove beyond doubt that “Easter” was used for centuries to refer to the Jewish “Passover” in the Biblical text. In short, pascha meant “Easter” in English before the word “Passover” was even coined by Tyndale in 1530 when he was working on his translation of the Pentateuch. The Oxford English Dictionary confirms this by reporting that the first known usage of the word “Passover” in English can be found in Tyndale’s translation of the Pentateuch from 1530, in which he translates the Hebrew word “pecah” as “Passover” all 22 times the word is used in Genesis through Deuteronomy (See OED entry for “Passover” in Appendix C).

Ross, Bryan. Don't Passover Easter: A New Defense of Easter in Acts 12:4 (p. 32). Dispensational Publishing House. Kindle Edition.


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Nov 28, 2023
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You keep slandering Westcott and Hort despite the fact that nobody has stood up for them.
I did not slander Westcott and Hort. I am merely telling the truth about them and the movement they caused. They are the ones who made possible the Modern Bible Movement today. So nobody has to stand up for them. It simply is the origins of the movement you follow whether you like that fact or not.

Note: I am also partaking of a deep impending investigation involving Westcott and Hort's Revised Version, as well.
I am doing a comparative analysis of the text. Whatever the results, I will be true to them.


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Nov 28, 2023
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According to the Oxford English Dictionary, "Easter" does indeed have a long history of being used as a reference to the Jewish "Passover," although the English word itself does not directly derive from the Hebrew word for Passover; instead, it originates from the Anglo-Saxon goddess of spring, Eostre, but the connection is seen in how many other European languages use words directly related to Passover to refer to Easter.

The NT was JEWISH thinking. Easter would have been forbidden.
For it originates from the Anglo-Saxon goddess of spring, Eostre,

It's stupid to tell a Jew that.
“Easter” was being used in the 14th and 15th centuries to refer to “The Jewish Passover” over two hundred years before Tyndale invented the term “Passover” in 1530. The WestSaxon Gospels from 990 and 1175 use some form of “Easter” exclusively in their respective texts to refer to “The Jewish Passover,” just as the Middle English Dictionary asserted.

Ross, Bryan. Don't Passover Easter: A New Defense of Easter in Acts 12:4 (pp. 31-32). Dispensational Publishing House. Kindle Edition.



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shittim

Senior Member
Dec 16, 2016
13,740
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Where it instructs us to do, yes. We aren’t expected to walk on water. ;)
That misses the point slightly, if you are guided to do something, He will also give you the means.
Jesus didn't make Peter sink, Peter let fear come in, fear is not faith, perfect faith stamps out fear.
best wishers friend.