Re-write that please?
Here is what I said:
Why should Paul say they will cease, if they were to do so when Christ returns?
It would just happen, and end. No need to explain.
Paul wrote what he did to make it known why they shall cease before Christ returns.
Here is your somewhat confusing unclear response...
Please clear it up?
Why do you need them, knowing what they enable, once you're with Yeshua when He Returns?
Paul was saying we were to stop needing them before Christ returns.
Your argument does not follow logically. Of course, Paul said 'So that ye come behind in no spiritual gift, waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.' before writing the rest of the epistle which goes into depth on speaking in tongues, interpretation and prophesying.
Here is a little article on the grammar:
1. The key Greek text
1 Corinthians 13:8 (NA/UBS sense):Literal gloss:ἡ ἀγάπη οὐδέποτε πίπτει·
εἴτε δὲ προφητεῖαι, καταργηθήσονται·
εἴτε γλῶσσαι, παύσονται·
εἴτε γνῶσις, καταργηθήσεται.
- love never falls
- prophecies will be abolished (καταργηθήσονται)
- tongues will cease (παύσονται)
- knowledge will be abolished (καταργηθήσεται)
2. The argument you heard
The claim usually goes like this:- παύσονται (“will cease”) is middle voice → “cease of themselves”
- καταργηθήσονται (“will be abolished”) is passive → externally terminated
- Therefore:
- tongues stop on their own before
- prophecies and knowledge are abolished later
3. Why this reasoning is considered faulty
A. Greek voice ≠ temporal sequence
The voice of a verb does not establish timing.- Middle voice describes how an action happens
- It does not tell you when, especially relative to other actions
There is no temporal marker in the sentence (no “before,” “after,” “then”).
B. Parallel structure argues
Paul uses a simple rhetorical parallelism:This structure emphasizes contrast with love, not sequencing.εἴτε Α, X
εἴτε Β, Y
εἴτε Γ, X
If Paul meant:
- tongues stop earlier
- prophecy later
- knowledge later still
C. παύομαι does not inherently mean “early cessation”
παύομαι simply means “stop, come to an end.”It can refer to:
- processes that stop temporarily or finally
- activities ended by circumstance
- things that end at an appointed telos
D. καταργέω ≠ “later”; it means “render inoperative”
καταργέω is Paul’s favorite verb for:- setting aside something partial when something complete arrives
- making something no longer function as it once did
- 1 Cor 13:10 (the partial → the complete)
- Rom 7:6 (released from the law)
- 2 Cor 3 (old covenant glory)
4. Paul’s own explanation (vv. 9–12)
Paul himself explains what he means:Three observations:“For we know in part and we prophesy in part, but when the complete comes, the partial will be abolished.”
- Prophecy and knowledge are explicitly tied to the same event (“when the complete comes”)
- Tongues are not re‑explained separately as an earlier phase
- The controlling contrast is:
- now (partial)
- then (complete)
5. Scholarly consensus (across theological lines)
Across cessationist and non‑cessationist scholarship, there is broad agreement on this point:- The grammar alone cannot prove that tongues ceased earlier than prophecy
- Any such claim must be argued theologically or historically—not grammatically
6. What Paul
Paul’s point is ethical and eschatological, not chronological:- Love endures
- Gifts are temporary
- All partial modes end when fullness arrives
I got a little help from Co-Pilot on the article above, based on prompting it to describe the problem of assuming the middle voice assumes sequence in this passage.