There isn't a translation but their is a bible that says bless. Called the Hebrew Bible.
I believe the word you meant to use was “there”, not “their”.
It appears you use the KJV when quoting the bible. So what is your opinion about the KJV regarding Job 2:5?
Job 2:5 KJV
But put forth thine hand now, and touch his bone and his flesh, and he will
curse thee to thy face.
What is your opinion regarding the KJV’s use of the word “curse” or similar derivative?
Also, what is your opinion regarding every other translation that uses the word “curse” in this verse?
Job 2:5 ESV
But stretch out your hand and touch his bone and his flesh, and he will
curse you to your face.”
Job 2:5 NKJV
But stretch out Your hand now, and touch his bone and his flesh, and he will
surely curse You to Your face!”
Job 2:5 NASB
However, reach out with Your hand now, and touch his bone and his flesh; he will
curse You to Your face!”
Job 2:5 JPS (Jewish Publication Society translated directly from Hebrew)
But put forth Thy hand now, and touch his bone and his flesh, surely he will blaspheme Thee to Thy face.'
And there are so many more translations that are not posted here which say the same thing.
So what is your opinion of these translations of Job 2:5? Please share.
And how do you explain the provision that the word “lo” also means “
surely” or “
verily” in Hebrew? Did you see that? This was pointed out to you before.
Original Word: לֹא
Part of Speech: Adverb
Transliteration: lo'
Pronunciation: lo
Phonetic Spelling: (lo)
KJV: X before, + or else, ere, + except, ig(-norant), much, less, nay, neither, never, no((-ne), -r, (-thing)), (X as though,(can-), for) not (out of), of nought, otherwise, out of,
+ surely,
+ as truly as,
+ of a truth,
+ verily, for want, + whether, without
NKJV: But now, stretch out Your hand and touch all that he has, and he will
surely curse You to Your face!”
TLV: But now, stretch out Your hand and strike everything he has, and he will
certainly curse You to Your face!”
BSB: But stretch out Your hand and strike his flesh and bones, and he will
surely curse You to Your face.”
Also, once again, have you considered the
context?
In the first test, satan claims if Job loses his possessions he will curse God to His face. Then, in the second test, satan claims if Job is stricken physically then he will
surely curse God to His face.
The intensity of the suffering satan suggests is escalating, and so it follows that his words would also escalate. It might be said in this way:
If Job loses his things, he will
curse You to Your face. Then, if Job is afflicted in his own physical body, he will
definitely curse You to Your face. The way the words are written support this logic.
In your version, it appears it would be summarized this way. If Job loses his things, he will curse You to Your face. Then, if Job is afflicted in his own physical body, he will not bless you to Your face.
Weird.
And how do you “not bless” someone
to their face ? That phrasing doesn’t even make sense. How do you “not” do something TO someone’s face? It’s illogical. It would make much more sense if satan simply said Job will not bless You. But that’s not what it says, does it?
So if the entire premise for your own individual particular exclusive stand-alone interpretation hinges on the way you (and you only) read this verse, I would consider rethinking that interpretation if I were you.
Hope this helps.