I'd like you to read 2 verses...Ezekiel 36:26-27...and tell me what these scripture say is the reason man cooperates with God.
I see you don't even answer your own question, so it is no wonder you reject mine!
I'd like you to read 2 verses...Ezekiel 36:26-27...and tell me what these scripture say is the reason man cooperates with God.
I agree with you that the change of heart is an aspect of salvation. And I didn't say it wasn't possible. My disagreement is not with the Bible. I will believe the Bible, whatever it says.It is the change of heart that accompanies salvation and becoming born again. And that isn't possible, why, because you say it's not? You would change God's clear words placing your judgment over His, telling Him that He is unable to do what He precisely said He does? So, you disagree with clear Scripture and the power of God, and that is what is "linguistically absurd". You lose creditability with kind of ridiculous position. Do these verses look " linguistically absurd" to you too? You don't think God is capable of carrying them out along with anything else that He desires? Really?
[Eze 36:26-27 KJV
26 A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh.
27 And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do [them].
Not really. Agreeing with the truth is not work.You are advertising works salvation !
You won't answer because scripture itself defeats your argument.I see you don't even answer your own question, so it is no wonder you reject mine!
Repentance is given Acts 5:31I agree with you that the change of heart is an aspect of salvation. And I didn't say it wasn't possible. My disagreement is not with the Bible. I will believe the Bible, whatever it says.
Okay?
My disagreement is with your interpretation. Naturally, when people disagree with each other's interpretation, the debate shifts to exegetical technique and issues such as language, grammar, historical background, lexical information, and context.
Please read my earlier comments in that light. I'm not saying that the scriptures are linguistically absurd, I'm saying that your interpretation renders them linguistically absurd. Please bear in mind that the Bible is not written in English; it is written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. We must remember that we are reading the text through the eyes of a translator, who is not infallible and may, occasionally, convey an idea that the author didn't intend.
So what I am saying is that the translator is conveying an idea that the author didn't intend. When Luke writes that God granted Israel repentance, we know that Luke didn't mean to say that God repented for them, or that God is going to act like Israel repented even though they didn't actually repent. He meant that God opened the door for Israel to repent.
Luke will go on to say that some repented, while others threatened to kill Peter.
Okay?
But you not doing that, agreeing with the truth, all i have observed from you is opposition to the truth, and misrepresenting what people with your slick taticNot really. Agreeing with the truth is not work.
I agree with you that the change of heart is an aspect of salvation. And I didn't say it wasn't possible. My disagreement is not with the Bible. I will believe the Bible, whatever it says.
Okay?
My disagreement is with your interpretation. Naturally, when people disagree with each other's interpretation, the debate shifts to exegetical technique and issues such as language, grammar, historical background, lexical information, and context.
Please read my earlier comments in that light. I'm not saying that the scriptures are linguistically absurd, I'm saying that your interpretation renders them linguistically absurd. Please bear in mind that the Bible is not written in English; it is written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. We must remember that we are reading the text through the eyes of a translator, who is not infallible and may, occasionally, convey an idea that the author didn't intend.
So what I am saying is that the translator is conveying an idea that the author didn't intend. When Luke writes that God granted Israel repentance, we know that Luke didn't mean to say that God repented for them, or that God is going to act like Israel repented even though they didn't actually repent. He meant that God opened the door for Israel to repent.
Luke will go on to say that some repented, while others threatened to kill Peter.
Okay?
If you are saying that a change of heart makes repentance possible, then fine. But the person must actually repent. Why is that not clear? I don't get it.A change of the heart is the mechanism through which God grants repentance to someone - there is no other way that for it to occur except as a gift from God, because prior to that change, the heart of natural man is deceitful above all.
What is a slick tatic?But you not doing that, agreeing with the truth, all i have observed from you is opposition to the truth, and misrepresenting what people with your slick tatic
I have already answered twice, in #455 and again in #486,I'd like you to read 2 verses...Ezekiel 36:26-27...and tell me what these scripture say is the reason man cooperates with God.
(Sigh), I have already answered twice, in #455 and again in #486,You won't answer because scripture itself defeats your argument.
Grace and peace.
I am not disagreeing with scripture. I take issue with your interpretation.Repentance is given Acts 5:31
31 Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins.
to give is an infinitive meaning:
as well as to reflect purpose or result ("This was done to fulfil what the prophet said").
The giving here causes the one given to, to repent
. the noun denotes something to be done by him to whom it is said to be given: διδόναι τινὶ μετάνοιαν, to cause him to repent, Acts 5:31; Acts 11:18;
So yes you disagree with the scripture
When wasn't the opportunity for repentance available? People from the onset of sin could repent. God said as much to Esau.I am not disagreeing with scripture. I take issue with your interpretation.
Let's break this down into a simple sentence and examine it together.
The phrase "to give repentance to Israel" is a short sentence. Something is being given to someone. The term "repentance" is the noun form of the verb "to repent." If God gave repentance to Israel when did she repent?
In English, repentance means either the act of repenting or the state of having repented; if God literally “gave repentance,” then Israel must have already repented, which is impossible, so the phrase must mean God gave the opportunity to repent, not the repentance itself.
If all men (and women) are "born in sin" than Jesus was born in sin.Not really. Again, reconciliation is not one-sided. I don't cease being God's enemy until I cease being God's enemy.
The Bible teaches an existential faith. That is, while Christ died for the whole world, his death doesn't apply to me, personally, unless I surrender, repent, and acknowledge that God has assigned Jesus to be my advocate.
Jesus isn't the son of Adam, He's the Son of God.If all men (and women) are "born in sin" than Jesus was born in sin.
No such thing as God giving repentance and it merely makes it possible. When God gives or Grants repentance, the person repents and is delivered, recovered, changed 2 Tim 2:25-26If you are saying that a change of heart makes repentance possible,
Jesus is the son of MaryJesus isn't the son of Adam, He's the Son of God.
Yes you are disagreeing with scripture in the guise of it being merely my interpretationI am not disagreeing with scripture. I take issue with your interpretation.
They repent as individuals when its time for them to convert Israel isnt ethnic national israel, its the Church the Body of Christ, and God has a set time when each person of that elect body will be converted, some may not yet be born yetThe phrase "to give repentance to Israel" is a short sentence. Something is being given to someone. The term "repentance" is the noun form of the verb "to repent." If God gave repentance to Israel when did she repent?
In English, repentance means either the act of repenting or the state of having repented; if God literally “gave repentance,” then Israel must have already repented, which is impossible, so the phrase must mean God gave the opportunity to repent, not the repentance itself.